The rock is stubborn and doesn't move with the wind. The leaf goes wherever the wind blows, right and then left, up and then down, with no reliability. Don't be a rock. But don't be a leaf eitherI eat semantics for breakfast and fine lines for dinner
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Tuesday, October 13, 2009

This needs a lot of work. I especially need to do more with the footnotes; some of them haven't even been filled in yet!

 I welcome feedback.

---------

What/Who Made God? Clarifying Concepts

 

Abstract: Some atheists have suggested that God’s existence would require a causal explanation, and further, that the absence of such an explanation negates the God hypothesis. Some (including outspoken atheist and author Richard Dawkins) have sharpened their reasoning as a rebuttal to the so-called “fine-tuning” argument. In this paper I contend that the very question of “what made God” is incoherent. I do so by arguing that “God” implies that the ground of contingency is self-aware and hence asking about God’s origin is the same as asking “what caused the ground of contingency?”   

 

Some theists, including philosopher William Lane Craig, have invoked the apparently fine-tuned constants of physics as evidence for an intelligent and transcendent mind that shaped these features of the universe. These “constants” of physics are arranged in such a way that even the most miniscule change would (apparently) make life impossible, which has been interpreted to mean that the universe was designed for life.[1] The likelihood of these constants occurring by “chance” has been compared to the likelihood of a hurricane plowing through a junkyard and assembling a Boeing 747 airplane. 

 

Many are skeptical of that argument, including the Oxford Zoologist Richard Dawkins.[2] He acknowledges the constants necessary for human life, but then turns the argument back onto the theists. He suggests that if God is able to create the complexity of the universe (those apparently “finely tuned” constants), then God must be at least as complex as the universe; but if the complexity of the universe require a transcendent cause, then surely God’s complexity must also require a transcendent cause (i.e. something beyond God), which immediately raises the problem of who/ what designed God.[3]

 

Dawkins also appears to have another (though closely related) counter-argument. In a recent article for the Wall Street Journal, Dawkins appears to suggest that no mind could create the universe because minds are the product of an already-existing universe.[4] He suggests that all minds must “emerge by gradual degrees from simpler beginnings”, and if God is a mind, then God must have likewise “emerge[d] gradually from simpler beginnings”. And if that is the case, then God was caused by a simpler beginning, which raises the problem of who/ what designed God.

 

I broadly agree with Dawkins that the “fine-tuning” argument is weak,[5] but I contend that Dawkins’ rebuttals are also weak. That is what this paper explores. Accordingly, the paper briefly examines three relevant issues:

 

1. The concept of God

 

2. The definition of “complex”

 

3. The nature of minds

 

I address them in order, starting with what the concept of “God” actually describes/ implies. To avoid confusion, note that I am not arguing for (nor against) theism, but instead I intend to clarify philosophical concepts and highlight problems in the public understanding of those concepts.

 

 

                                        THE GOD CONCEPT

 

When describing the concept of God, philosophers of religion (and certainly most lay believers) tend to include the criterion non-contingency; in other words, God is described as being the source or ground of contingency, and therefore not contingent upon anything for his/her/its existence. The very idea of a “God” describes something that never arose (i.e. never began to exist). That criterion is part of the God concept; if we take away that criterion then we are not longer talking about “God”.[6]

 

That is what theists are proposing, but let us back up a little bit further. Let us assume for a moment that God does not exist. Unless we invoke an infitite regress,[7] we still need to posit an ultimate source (or ground) of contingency upon which everything else is contingent.

 

Perhaps the source of contingency (SoC) is some impersonal energy “outside” of our universe that initiated the big bang.[8] Theists differ in the following important respect: they suggest that the SoC is self-aware/ personal.[9] Indeed, the main difference between atheism and theism is whether or not the SoC is self-aware. Theists suggest this self-aware agent mediated the big bang. To further clarify, let us say that God either:

 

P1: Exists contingently (i.e. began to exist – arose/emerged into existence)

 

P2: Exists necessarily (i.e. “has always existed”)

 

P3: Necessarily does not exist (i.e. “has never existed”)

 

If we use P1 to describe God, then we would indeed have to explain where God came from and “what/who made God”. However, this is almost never what theists mean by “God”. Theists (at least most theistic authors in my experience) mean P2. If P2 describes God then we do not have to expain “who made God”. In that case, the very question would be incoherent.[10] Of course, we would still need to provide evidence for such an agent, but that is beside the current point.

 

In response to P2, some have suggested that “we could just as easily say that the universe is eternal and never began to exist”.[11] That is partially true; atheists could (and some do) claim that the universe is eternal in the past. Let us title it the Eternal Universe (EU) hypothesis. EU proponents suggest that the physical realm is the source of contingency (the ground of existence), but is not itself contingent upon anything. That is the proposal. With that in mind, envision the following fictional dialogue between an EU proponent (EUP) and a religious critic (RC):

 

EUP: As an atheist, I don’t believe that any god created the universe. Actually, I don’t think our universe even had an absolute beginning. Instead, I think that the universe is itself the source of contingency / the ground of existence, and is therefore not contingent upon anything for its existence. I may be wrong, but that’s what I am suggesting.

 

RC: But WHERE did the universe come from? Who or what made the universe?

 

EUP: If you ask what made the universe then you are not addressing my proposal. I’m proposing an eternal universe that never began to exist. In that context, asking what made the universe is incoherent and misunderstands the very concept it’s supposed to be negating.

 

RC: Well I could just as easily say that there is an eternal God!

 

EUP: That may or may not be true. But my current point is that you cannot negate the EU hypothesis by asking who made the universe. That question is, in this context, quite incoherent.

 

(I am not intending to create a false dichotomy between an eternal God and an eternal universe. One can affirm the absolute beginning of our universe at the big bang without inferring God or an infinite regress. As I noted earlier, an atheist can still maintain that the SoC is both impersonal and the generator of the big bang. My point with the above dialogue is to reverse the unfair criticism, as I note below.)

 

 In the above dialogue, the religious person is being unfair in rejecting the idea of an eternal universe by asking how that universe began to exist. But likewise, Dawkins cannot negate the God concept by asking “who made God”? The very concept of God refers to something that was never made. Asking “who made God” would, in that context, be incoherent. An eternal universe does not require a cause, but neither does an eternal God.

 

In Dawkins’ defense, he usually poses that question in response to the fine-tuning argument. I discuss that in more detal later in this paper (while discussing “the defintion of ‘complex’”). In the meantime, let us switch that dialogue around. This time we have a conversation between a philosophical theist and a hypothetical atheist (HA):

 

Theist: Although it’s scientifically debatable, there seems to be good reasons for arguing that the universe began to exist after previously not existing. If so, then something outside the universe is responsible for its emergence, and therefore the universe is contingent upon that “something”. So something else is the source of contingency. I suggest that the source of contingency is self-aware – i.e. God. I may be wrong, but that’s what I think.

 

HA: Okay, if you say God made the universe then what made God?!

 

Theist: When I say “God”, I’m refering to something that never began to exist, and therefore something that doesn’t require a causal explanation. The very concept of “God” implies something that always existed.

 

HA: That’s just too easy and convenient! You’re just trying to cover up the fact that you have no evidence for God.

 

Theist: Well, I grant that God may not exist. It may be the case that the source of contingency is impersonal. But you can’t challenge the God hypothesis by asking “who made God”.

 

HA: Why not?

 

Theist: Because that very question immediately changes the topic. If you ask “who made God” then you are no longer talking about the God hypothesis.

 

HA: Why not?

 

Theist: Because the God hypothesis says that the source of contingency is self-aware. In that case, asking what made God is the same as asking “what made the source of contingency?” The latter question is incoherent. If you ask what caused the source of contingency then you are no longer talking about the source of contingency.

 

HA: I think the flying spaghetti monster made the universe. Prove me wrong!

 

Theist: If the flying spaghetti monster is both self-aware and the ground of contingency, then it would be God – it would simply be another term for God. It would not be an alternative to the God concept, but rather an alternative label for the same concept.

 

HA: Well, how do you know that your view of God is correct? Maybe the SoC is the Muslim deity, or maybe it’s the Christian deity, or some other deity. Maybe it’s an apathetic deity.

 

Theist: An important question, but also irrelevant to my current point – namely, that the God concept isn’t susceptible to the question “what made God?”[12]

 

It should noted in passing that there are a range of other possibilities related to the God question. Some propose cosmological dualism (whereby there is an eternal universe and an eternal self-aware mind that affects and molds the eternal universe), others suggest a multi-verse that may or may not involve any gods,[13] and others suggest pantheism. However, those possibilities are beyond the scope of this paper.

 

 

                             THE DEFINITION OF “COMPLEX”

 

Recall Dawkins’ comments on complexity – If God created the universe then he/she/it is at least as complex as the universe, and if the univere’s complexity requires a transcendent cause, then God would also require a transcendent cause. 

 

But what exactly does “complex” mean? Dawkins himself has offered two related definitions:

 

D1: “Complx” may refer to something with parts arranged in a way that make it unlikely to have arisen/emerged by chance[14]

 

D2: Or it may be used to simply mean “statistically improbable” - offered by Dawkins in a recent WSJ article.[15]

 

D1 does not (and cannot) apply to the God concept for two reasons: First, the God concept does not describe something with various parts arranged in unlikely ways, and second, it also does not descirbe something that emerged. If we say that God “emerged” then we are no longer talking about the God-concept.

 

It should also be noted that the SoC, by definition, must contain within itself the power to generate everything that is contingent upon it (including our universe) – regardless of whether or not it is personal. But it may be that the God-concept is itself incoherent; D2 was offered by Dawkins in connection to minds, which I discuss next.

 

 

                         THE NATURE OF MINDS

 

So far we have seen why the question “what made God” is nonsensical, but there is another question to explore: Is it even coherent to say that the SoC is personal? Dawkins suggests says it cannot be personal due to the nature of minds. He suggests that all minds must “emerge gradually from simpler beginnings”, and hence the SoC cannot be personal; if it were personal then it must have emerged, and anything that emerges cannot be the SoC. Therefore, whatever the SoC may be, it cannot be personal/ a mind.

 

There are two difficulties with Dawkins’ argument here.

 

For one, it must be based on observations of natural minds, which do seem to gradually emerge. But this means that Dawkins is citing a limitation of natural minds and then applying it to the concept of a para-natural mind. However, if there were a para-natural mind then (by definition) it would not be bound to all the same regularities and principles that natural minds are (if it were, then it would be natural and not para-natural). The concept may be wrong, but Dawkins cannot demonstrate that by appealing to the limitations of a different concept.

 

Second, Dawkins is greatly oversimplifying the field of philosophy of mind. He never seems to seriously contemplate any evidence that minds may be independent of brains (which may be “instruments” used by minds). I am certainly not suggesting that the brain is uninvolved with our experience of reality; of course it is involved. But what is the extent of that involvement? What is the nature of it? Does the brain generate mind or receive mind? Are we our brains? Or are we minds experiencing (one layer of) reality through the medium of brains? If the latter, then we really do not know how minds emerge, or whether minds exist (through other mediums) after brain death, or whether “natural” minds are derived from some transcendent mind. I do not have space for discussing all of the relevant issues here; the point here is that Dawkins’ approach may be too dismissive and simplistic.[16]

 

With all that being said, it must be stressed that I have not attempted to argue for (nor against) theism. The nature of the SoC is highly controversial and is unlikely to be solved in a short article. Indeed, agnostics would say that it cannot be solved in principle, at least not during this life. Whatever the answer may be, it cannot be challenged by asking how the SoC began to exist.



[1] For example, in 1998 debate against Edwin Curley, Craig remarked:

 

We now know that life-prohibiting universes are vastly more probable than any life-permitting universe like ours. How much more probable? Well, the answer is that the chances that the universe should be life-permitting are so infinitesimal as to be incomprehensible and incalculable. For example, Stephen Hawking has estimated that if the rate of the universe’s expansion one second after the Big Bang had been smaller by even one part in a hundred thousand million million, the universe would have re-collapsed into a hot fireball. P.C.W. Davies has calculated that the odds against the initial conditions being suitable for star formation (without which planets could not exist) is one followed by a thousand billion billion zeroes, at least [emphasis added]. [Davies also] estimates that a change in the strength of gravity or of the weak force by only one part in 10 raised to the 100th power would have prevented a life-permitting universe. There are around 50 such constants and quantities present in the Big Bang which must be fine tuned in this way if the universe is to permit life. And it’s not just each quantity which must be finely tuned; their ratios to each other must also be exquisitely finely tuned. So improbability is multiplied by improbability by improbability until our minds are reeling in incomprehensible numbers. There is no physical reason why these constants and quantities should posses the values they do. The onetime agnostic physicist P.C. W. Davies comments, “Through my scientific work I have come to believe more and more strongly that the physical universe is put together with an ingenuity so astonishing that I cannot accept it merely as a brute fact.” Similarly, Fred Hoyle remarks, “A common sense interpretation of the facts suggests that a superintellect has monkeyed with physics.” Robert Jastrow, the head of NASA’s Goddard Institute for Space Studies, calls this the most powerful evidence for the existence of God ever to come out of science. [The transcript can be found on Craig’s web site at http://www.reasonablefaith.org/site/PageServer?pagename=debates_main]

 

[2] Dawkins, R. The God Delusion. 2006

 

[3] As I argue in the body of this paper, the force of Dawkins counter-argument depends on what we mean by “complex” and on whether we posit “God” to be the ground of contingency.

 

[4] See Dawkins’ essay in Man vs. God, published in The Wall Street Journal on September 12, 2009. Dawkins argues, in part, as follows:

 

Making the universe is the one thing no intelligence, however superhuman, could do, because an intelligence is complex—statistically improbable —and therefore had to emerge, by gradual degrees, from simpler beginnings: from a lifeless universe—the miracle-free zone that is physics.

 

[5] A philosophic consensus on the fine-tuning argument is unlikely to occur any time soon. In this footnote I offer a very brief overview of the situation. Several have argued that other universes could sustain different kinds of intelligent life. While it is true that the “tuning” we observe is necessary for our kind of life, it is logically possible that other types of tuning could give rise to other kinds of life, including highly intelligent life forms. We simply do not know, and so we are in no position to assert that the constants we observe are categorically necessary for any intelligent life form to emerge. An additional objection is that the God-hypothesis is no more plausible as an explanation than the multi-verse hypothesis (MVH). The MVH says that there is a universe-manufacturing energy system that explains both the origin and “fine tuning” of our universe. On this hypothesis, there are innumerable other universes. Following P.C.W. Davies, Craig notes that “the odds against the initial conditions being suitable for star formation (without which planets could not exist) is one followed by a thousand billion billion zeroes, at least”. However, the MVH says that there are more than a thousand billion-billion universes, and so the hypothesis predicts a universe with initial conditions suitable for star formation. The finely-tuned constants may be interpreted as evidence for theism or evidence for the MVH. If we went by the finely-tuned constants alone then neither view would be more likely than the other, and some other evidence would be required. Craig rejects this response and suggests a possible weakness with the multi-verse account for the fine tuning. He argues that if the MVH were responsible for the highly improbable tuning then it should have also generated less improbable occurrences, such as perpetual motion machines (which are apparently vastly more probable than the values of the constants). We do not see these more probable things, and so Craig argues that the MVH is not a good explanation of the less probable constants. However, I fail to see the merit of this counter-argument. On the MVH, we should expect universes such as ours, but also universes in which perpetual motion machines are bountiful. And so presumably (if the MVH is true), there are other universes where these things occur, even if they do not occur in ours. On the MVH, we should expect at least one universe to contain remarkable fine-tuning without also containing more probable things, and our universe fits the bill. Again, this does not mean that the MVH is true or even more plausible than theism; it just means that both the MVH and theism have equal explanatory value when assessing the fine-tuning.

 

[6] For example, see discussions by philosophers of religion Keith Ward and Eric Reitan. See Ward’s books “God: A Guide for the Perplexed” (Oneworld Publications 2002) and “Why There Almost Certainly Is a God” (2008), and Reitan’s book “Is God a Delusion?” (Wiley-Blackwell 2008). For these philosophers (and others), the very idea of “God” indicates that the SoC is personal in nature. 

 

[7] By “infinite regress”, I mean the following scenario: 1 comes from -1, which comes from -2, which comes from -3, ad infinitum. In other words, the chain of causal explanations goes backwards forever without ever reaching a final causal explanation.

 

[8] There are a host of questions related to “big bang” cosmology that I cannot discuss here. There are debates on whether the big bang “came from nothing” (and what “nothing” even means in that context), whether a personal cause is necessary to explain when the big bang occurred, or whether the big bang is truly the source of physical reality (i.e. whether there was anything “physical” “prior to” the big bang).

 

[9] Ward describes God as “a final [and] personal explanation for the universe... on the God hypothesis, there is one conscious mind, the mind of God, which is always in existence” (emphasis added). In other words, he thinks that “God” is both the final explanation of reality and personal in nature. Note that this conception is not unique to contemporary believers and scholars, but can be found in ancient writings (scriptures and commentaries alike). So for example, the New Testament letter of Colossians tell us that by God “all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by [God] and for him” (1:16). In John’s gospel, readers are told that “through [God] all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made” (1:1-3). The latter clarifies that God is ultimately responsible for everything that has been “made” – everything that begins to exist.

 

[10] Regarding this proposition, Ward writes: “Once you understand that God is eternal, you will never again ask ‘who or what made God’. You will see that the question does not make sense” (emphasis added).

 

[11]

 

[12] Unfortunately, there is widespread confusion on the points highlighted in the above dialogues, particularly among the so-called “New Atheists”. For example, in his film Religulous, the popular comedian and political commentator Bill Maher poses the question “what made God” as a challenge to Christians. Christianity may or may not be vulnerable to other critical questions, but that question is inappropriate for reasons discussed in this paper.

 

[13] The multi-verse hypothesis is not necessarily an alternative to theism, since the “manufacturer” of the (innumerable) universes would be the SoC, which raises the question of whether or not “it” is self-aware. Again, the key difference between atheism and theism is whether or not the SoC is personal, which is a question that cannot be answered by physics data.

 

[14]

 

[15] In the article Dawkins also argues that evolution places doubt on the God concept, but in this regard he seems to suffer from the failure of imagination. As I note in the body of this paper, the SoC is indirectly responsible for giving rise to the processes of evolution, and so if the SoC is self-aware then we have a sort of mind-influenced evolution. Additionally, if one concludes that there is such a “thing” as a non-embodied mind that exists without a brain, and if one concludes that minds can affect matter at a distance via some poorly-understood psi capacities, then it is reasonable to conclude that minds could have affected the routes of evolution (these minds may or may not include the divine mind). Of course, those two premises are highly controversial and proponents would need to offer some rationales. The point is that Dawkins is oversimplifying the issues. It is also worth considering that evolution deals with biological diversity and as such it cannot provide evidence against theism or supernaturalism per se; they address separate questions. Evolution can help us critique certain versions of theism (e.g. 6-day creationism), but it cannot help us assess the case(s) for or against theism.

 

[16] Here are some insightful books and journal articles on these issues. [need to add refs]


Sunday, February 01, 2009

This is part 2 of my discussion on "hell". Click here for part 1. Just a heads up for anybody who dislikes theology - this is another theologically-oriented entry.

This is actually the preliminary rough draft for chapter 3 of my book-in-progress. Before posting the draft, I just want to say a few things

I need to improve this draft and the draft for chapter 2. They both have sections that need meat and polishing up.

My book will be short; it's not supposed to be a super-lenghty expose. The universalism part of my book aims to briefly explain the reasons why universalism is favorable and Biblically-based. (And again, by "universalism", I don't mean unitarian universalism). But if anybody wants a more thorough and detailed work, I recommend three sources:

The Evangelical Universalist by Gregory MacDonald, published in 2006

Universal Salvation? The Current Debate, edited by Christopher Patridge and Robin Parry, published in 2003

The Inescapable Love of God by Thomas Talbott, published in 1999

Anyway, here's the draft


 

Chapter 3

 The Fires of Hell: Retributive or Remedial?

   

In chapter 2 I discussed how Biblical authors understood agape and the idea that somehow “God is agape” (which at least seems to imply that God’s actions must be compatible with agape[1]), Jesus’ teachings on agape, and the idea that God “is chrestos to the poneros” – all of which seem to place doubt on the idea that God forcibly imposes endless misery on anyone. This leaves the possibility that some people freely damn themselves forever, in which case God honors their choice because free will is irrevocable. However, chapter 2 also discusses problems with the idea of self-imposed damnation characterized by never-ending misery.

So we are left in a predicament. On the one hand, the idea of never-ending conscious misery seems altogether inconsistent; it is unlikely to be God-imposed, but also unlikely to be freely self-imposed. But on the other hand, we have to acknowledge that some texts are initially difficult on the surface. We find images of “weeping and gnashing of teeth” in the “fiery furnace”.

There are two possible alternatives. Either

a) God will annihilate those in Gehenna so that they no longer exist at all[2]

Or

b) The fiery furnace is itself a means of universalism in which the (metaphorical) flames burn away everything that separates us from God and from each other[3]

It is my contention that the Biblical descriptions of hell are more in line with universalism than with annihilationism (although the latter is still a vast moral improvement over eternal conscious misery). In this chapter I argue that divine fire is a metaphor expressing rehabilitation – that hell fire actually purges and heals people. I argue Jesus himself implied that hell purifies and, in so doing, was in line with a tradition of using “fire” in exactly that way. I also argue that the other texts that mention hell either presuppose remedial punishment or can be interpreted that way without being strained (I call these latter hell texts “the ambiguous hell texts”). The ability to interpret the ambiguous hell texts in a remedial way comes from two things: First, Biblical precedent for using “fire” as a symbol for remedial punishment (which I elaborate on below), and second, Biblical data on the nature/character of God. I will not cite pro-CU prooftexts in this chapter as a way of proving that hell must be remedial (even though I agree with that approach as well) because my critics would claim that I have made a circular argument.

The idea that curing/purification/healing would be “painful” may seem odd to some readers, but consider a few medical examples to help clarify the concept. In the case of heavy metal toxicity (tissue accumulation of heavy metals), the treatment is chelation therapy (therapy with an agent that binds to heavy metals). For some people, the treatment temporarily worsens symptoms until the person’s body has been cleansed of the metals. Something similar may occur on a spiritual/mental level through hell. According to St. Gregory of Nyssa, the soul that is united to sin must be cleansed by fire (“aionios fire”) that burns away the binding sinfulness. 

To start, we must briefly revisit a theme explored earlier: The idea that God’s actions always reflect agape. If God’s actions sometimes do not reflect agape then it would make no sense to say “God is agape”. As Talbott notes, the goal of love is the ultimate good of its object.[4] Sometimes love compels us to help people with self-destructive behavior even when they apparently do not want us to. One example of this would be parents forcing their beloved (but irrational) heroin addict child into a rehabilitation center. Talbott cites the example of a father physically overpowering his suicidal daughter from successfully committing suicide. God loves his own enemies as much as he loves himself, and from that alone, we must conclude that God wills good things for his own enemies.

That being said, I want to follow Talbott in pointing out that suggest that some people must endure an unpleasant transformation. Paul talks about something like this in Corinthians 5:1-5, even claiming Satan as helping with the correction.

It is actually reported that there is immorality among you, and immorality of such a kind as does not exist even among the Gentiles, that someone has his father’s wife.

 

You have become arrogant and have not mourned instead, so that the one who had done this deed would be removed from your midst.

For I, on my part, though absent in body but present in spirit, have already judged him who has so committed this, as though I were present.

In the name of our Lord Jesus, when you are assembled, and I with you in spirit, with the power of our Lord Jesus, I have decided to deliver such a one to Satan for the destruction of his flesh, so that his spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.

Paul is distressed about “immorality of such a kind that does not exist even among the gentiles”, namely a man who sleeps with his father’s wife. This is not only adultery, but it is also betrayal against one’s father. Paul says that the man needs to be “deliver[ed] to Satan”. This is certainly ambiguous, but Paul adds a clarifying detail:  The man’s “flesh” will be destroyed by Satan for the purpose of saving his spirit. In other words, the harsh “punishment” of being delivered to Satan has an underlying remedial purpose – a purpose that is achieved by destruction of flesh. “Flesh” here, of course, does not mean literal flesh (blood, bones, skin, etc.). Instead, it is a metaphor representing the sinful nature. There is a part of this man’s psyche that allows him (or compels him) to betray his father and commit adultery and it is destroyed through Satan. 

Someone may argue that Paul’s sentence uses the aorist subjunctive, which usually implies possibility and not certainty – so the man’s spirit may or may not be saved by having his flesh destroyed by Satan. But that is irrelevant to the point here. The point is that the purpose of being handed to satan is salvation (salvation from sin); the so-called punishment is remedial in function. Whether the purpose will be achieved is irrelevant here. This is part of a trend in Biblical literature in which harsh punishment serves a remedial purpose.

As I explain below, other examples of purification use images of fire, which is perhaps more relevant to our discussion of hell. In the third chapter of his letter to the Corinthians, Paul talks about salvation via fire (verses 10-16):

According to the grace of God given to me, like a skilled master builder I laid a foundation, and someone else is building upon it. Let each one take care how he builds upon it.

For no one can lay a foundation other than that which is laid, which is Jesus Christ.

If anyone builds on the foundation with gold, silver, precious stones, wood, hay, straw— each one’s work will become manifest, for the Day will disclose it, because it will be revealed by fire, and the fire will test what sort of work each one has done. If the work that anyone has built on the foundation survives, he will receive a reward.

If anyone’s work is burned up, he will suffer loss, though he himself will be saved, but only as through fire.

Do you not know that you are God’s temple and that God’s Spirit dwells in you?

Here Paul talks about a fire that tests and reveals people’s work. He says that if any person’s work is “burned up” then “he will suffer loss”. But he reassures the reader that such a man “will be saved, but only as through fire”. Similarly, in verse 3 of the 13th chapter (discussed earlier) Paul mentions the idea of “giving up” his body so that he “may be burned” and implies that doing so is a good thing.

 

Similar passages can be found in the Old Testament, where we also find the idea that the fire itself is God’s presence. Malachi writes about God as a “refiner’s fire” in 3:1-5:

“Behold, I send my messenger, and he will prepare the way before me. And the Lord whom you seek will suddenly come to his temple; and the messenger of the covenant in whom you delight, behold, he is coming,” says the LORD of hosts.

But who can endure the day of his coming, and who can stand when he appears? For he is like a refiner’s fire and like fullers’ soap.

He will sit as a refiner and purifier of silver, and he will purify the sons of Levi and refine them like gold and silver, and they will bring offerings in righteousness to the LORD.

Malachi writes about the sons of Levi being refinement and purification through God’s fire (specifically drawing an analogy with the purification of gold and silver whereby the taints and impurities are removed from the metals). More than that, he suggests that God himself is the fire, a concept that is also found in Hebrews 12:29, which says that “our God is a consuming fire”. Of further interest is the reference to “soap”. God’s fiery presence cleans people like spiritual “soap”.

 

Critics may point out that these examples refer to those who already have a covenant with God and are inapplicable to the fire of hell, which is meant for unrepentant sinners. I offer two replies to that.

 

First, one point I am trying to convey is that fire imagery is often used for remedial punishment, which immediately opens the possibility of that tradition applying to hell fire. To say that the fires of hell cannot serve the same kind of function simply begs the question. It presupposes the idea that hell fire is endless misery. Critics will say that their position is based on the fact that hell fire is described as “eternal” and “unquenchable”. I address this point later on, but also somewhat in my second point below.

 

Second, Jesus appears to apply the fire-as-correction tradition to hell in Mark 9:42-49, in which he even says that “everyone” will go through a fire-mediated cleansing:

 

Whoever causes one of these little ones [children] who believe in me to sin, it would be better for him if a great millstone were hung around his neck and he were thrown into the sea.

 

And if your hand causes you to sin, cut it off. It is better for you to enter life crippled than with two hands to go to hell [Gehenna], to the unquenchable fire.

 

And if your foot causes you to sin, cut it off. It is better for you to enter life lame than with two feet to be thrown into Gehenna. 

 

And if your eye causes you to sin, tear it out. It is better for you to enter the kingdom of God with one eye than with two eyes to be thrown into Gehenna, where their worm does not die and the fire is not quenched.

 

For everyone will be salted [purified] with fire. Salt is good, but if the salt has lost its saltiness, how will you make it salty again? Have salt in yourselves, and be at peace with one another.

 

Jesus starts off with strong hyperbolic language suggesting that anybody who harms children would be better off drowning. He then repeatedly refers to the fire that people face(d) in hell (Gehenna). At first this seems like support for ED, particularly verse 48. However, in the very next verse (verse 49) Jesus states that “For everyone will be salted with fire”. The verb “salted” clarifies the cleansing nature of the fire (and v 49 goes on to say that the salting will result in people being at peace with one another). Who will be salted? “Everyone will be.” The word translated as “for” is “gar”, which is a conjunction linking verses 48 and 49 together. Thayer describes it as:

 

 a particle of affirmation and conclusion, denoting truly therefore, verily as it stands... the force of the particle is either conclusive, or demonstrative, or explicative and declaratory... it adduces the Cause or gives the Reason of a preceding statement... sometimes it confirms, not a single statement, but the point of an entire discussion... The particle is everywhere used in reference to something expressly stated. [Emphasis in original]

 

 The fire of hell is not quenched gar everyone will be salted with fire. If Gehenna fire is endless misery, then everybody will endure endless misery, including Christians. ED proponents may argue that the reference to “everyone” is limited to “everyone in the category of the saved” and that “only the saved will be salted with fire, whereas the lost will be tormented by the fire forever”. For example, one commentary says:

 

 Every one” probably means “Every follower of mine”; and the “fire” with which he “must be salted” probably means “a fiery trial” to season him.

 

Committed ED proponents must find a way to explain away this verse, so some suggest that the reference to “everyone” actually means every Christian. From this perspective, verse 48 refers to fire of endless hell, whereas verse 49 refers to a cleansing fire that helps purify Christians. However, as discussed above, verse 48 is listed as an example of verse 49; that is the force behind the conjunction of “gar”. So the fire of verse 48 must have the same function as the fire of verse 49 – it must also be a kind of fire that salts, albeit in a more painful/unpleasant way. This is yet another example where fire, judgment (even harsh-sounding judgment), and purification are woven together.

 

ED proponents often suggest that the salt represents preservation, so that the wicked will be preserved in hell forever. And indeed, salt can refer to either preservation or cleansing, and if one is committed to the ED view then the preservation interpretation of Mark 9:49 is very appealing. However, two problems arise. First, fire does not preserve; fire destroys and consumes. How can a destructive force also be a salting force? The fire preserves that which is good by destroying that which is evil – and that is how “fire” is used elsewhere in the Bible when applied to judgment. Second, once again, the conjunction links verses 48 and 49 together in such a way that the fire of verse 48 must have the same function as the fire of verse 49.

 

Universalist author Gregory Macdonald writes:

 

The words “for everyone will be salted with fire” are offered as an explication about the comments on Gehenna [hell]. This verse has long perplexed commentators, but it seems to suggest that the fires of Gehenna function as a place of purification...

 

However... I do not want to suggest that it [verse 49] can alone carry the burden of driving us to a universalist reading of hell.[5]

 

Macdonald accepts the argument that verse 49 implies the purgatorial nature of hell (Gehenna), but he is unwilling to place the Universalist view of hell on that verse alone. I agree with him that verse 49 by should not be cited by itself as proof of hell’s cleansing nature. However, the point I am making here is that Mark 9:49 is one example out of several examples. The idea of fiery judgment from God leading to purification is repeatedly stressed in the Bible. Given that precedent, if verse 49 is a genuine quotation from Jesus, then Christians should view hell as providing purifying/ healing fire. At the very least, Jesus implied that purification is one of hell’s purposes, if not the purpose.

 

Of further interest is the reference to “worm” is verse 48. The actual word is “skolex” and it is better translated as “maggots” (as opposed to earth worms). The interesting thing is that maggots can serve a medicinal purpose: They eat only dead flesh and leave healthy tissue alone. They remove that which does not belong. The fact that maggots are employed in the fiery imagery may suggest that the fire is meant to burn away (or eat away or consume) the person’s sin (dead flesh). However, it is not clear whether the audience would have been aware that maggots do this. At the very least, the reference to “maggots” can go either way.[6]

 

Unquenchable Fire

 

Some may ask, “If the fire is purifying, then why describe it as ‘unquenchable’?”

 

However, “asbestos fire” seems to have been a figure of speech for a fire that burns until it has consumed everything it was supposed to consume – a fire that cannot be stopped until it finishes doing what it is supposed to do. There are several reasons to draw this conclusion:

 

First, in Luke 3:17, Jesus says that the recipient of asbestos fire is “chaff”, which is incapable of literally burning forever. Chaff is finite and must eventually be utterly consumed. It would be absurd to suggest that a “never-ending fire” will burn chaff forever.

 

Second, the early church figure Eusibius referred to Christian martyrs who died in “asbestos fire”, indicating that the early church did not necessarily understand the concept as referring to never-ending fire.

 

Finally, the Old Testament also implies this. For example, Jeremiah 17:27 and Ezekiel 20:47-48 say that Jerusalem was burned with fire that would “not be quenched”. We know that Jerusalem is not burning today (either literally or figuratively). So there is no contradiction by saying that the “unquenchable” fire of hell is remedial. 

 

Aionios Fire

 

Some may ask, “But then, what about references to ‘eternal fire’ and ‘eternal punishment’?” I have three lines of response.

 

First, Gehenna fire is directly paralleled with “aionios fire” in Matthew 18:8-9:

 

...if your hand or your foot causes you to sin, cut it off and throw it away. It is better for you to enter life crippled or lame than with two hands or two feet to be thrown into the aionios fire.

 

And if your eye causes you to sin, tear it out and throw it away. It is better for you to enter life with one eye than with two eyes to be thrown into Gehenna fire.

 

Here Jesus says that “aionios fire” is the same thing as “Gehenna fire”. Earlier we saw that Jesus described Gehenna fire as salting. So if Gehenna fire is aionios fire, then we can say that aionios fire also salts/purifies. This is not circular but logical:

 

a) Gehenna fire purifies

 

b) Aionios fire is another term for Gehenna fire

 

c) Therefore, aionios fire also refers to a purifying fire

 

This is deductive reasoning; if the first two premises are true, then the conclusion c is necessarily true. Regardless of how we translate the Greek adjective “aionios” (which is still debated), the parallel here suggests that aionios fire is also meant to purify.

 

Second, Matthew 25:46 quotes Jesus as applying “aionios” to “kolasis”, a term that typically conveyed remedial punishment. According to now-deceased scholar William Barclay, this word “originally referred to the pruning of trees to make them grow better”. Similarly, when applied to human beings, kolasis is for the benefit of the person experiencing it (c.f. usage by Plato and Aristotle); it helps them grow. Although the word is often surrounded by vengeance-style language, the standard meaning of the word was remedial punishment. It is worth noting that Jesus is recorded using “kolasis” instead of the standard words for endless retributive punishment, such as the Pharisees’ expression of “aidios timoria” (“unbreakable vengeance”). Talbott admits that the lexical evidence surrounding “kolasis” is not enough to conclusively demonstrate that Jesus meant it in a remedial sense, but the point is that it can be interpreted that way – it is a possible translation. Whether we should interpret it that way depends on other evidence, such as the evidence discussed earlier. As I also discussed earlier, Luke 10 records Jesus saying that aionios life is obtained by loving our neighbors and God. John says that those who love “will have confidence on the day of judgment”, while those who fail to love will receive kolasis. Interestingly, in Matthew 25 the recipients of kolasis are those who refused to care for the poor. This is part of an overreaching theme of love bringing people to aionios life. People who refuse to love have something wrong with them, something that must be corrected with kolasis.

 

Third, there is a Biblical precedent of “aionios fire” referring to temporally limited punishment. Jude 7 says that the city of Sodom was destroyed with aionios fire, and yet the prophet Ezekiel said that Sodom will eventually be “restored”. Some have suggested that Jude’s reference to “aionios fire” refers to postmortem punishment in hell. However, Jude’s frame of reference is the account in the book of Genesis (chapter 19), which suggests that both the people and the cities that housed them were destroyed by the same fire. From Genesis 19:12-25 (KJV)

 

[v 12] the men said unto Lot, Hast thou here any besides? son in law, and thy sons, and thy daughters, and whatsoever thou hast in the city, bring them out of this place:

For we will destroy this place, because the cry of them is waxen great before the face of the LORD; and the LORD hath sent us to destroy it.

And
Lot went out, and spake unto his sons in law, which married his daughters, and said, Up, get you out of this place; for the LORD will destroy this city. But he seemed as one that mocked unto his sons in law.

And when the morning arose, then the angels hastened
Lot, saying, Arise, take thy wife, and thy two daughters, which are here; lest thou be consumed in the iniquity of the city.

... Then the LORD rained upon
Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the LORD out of heaven;

And he overthrew those cities, and all the plain, and all the inhabitants of the cities, and that which grew upon the ground.

 

Jude drew upon this account and concluded that God destroyed the cities and their inhabitants with an aionios fire. Jude was not referring to a postmortem state. Ezekiel 16:55 says that Sodom will one day be restored, even though it was destroyed by aionios fire.

 

Aionios Parallels

 

ED proponents often point out that Matthew 25:46 also describes the “life” given to the saved as “aionios”. They argue that if aionios kolasis is temporary in duration, then aionios life must also be temporary in duration. I have two lines of reply:

 

First, if we view the “kolasis/fire” as purification then we can harmonize the translation of “eternal” with CU. Aionios kolasis/fire is a process that, after completion, results in eternal purification – a cleansing fire whose effects last forever. Likewise, the aionios life is a gift that results in never-ending life.

 

Second, related to the above point, I cite the discussion by Thomas Talbott:

 

... the very meaning of the Greek adjective aionios... has been the subject of dispute. For though the adjective literally means “age enduring” or “that which pertains to an age”, Plato gave it a special and much deeper meaning. In accordance with his distinction between “time” (“chronos”) and “eternity” (aion), Plato used the adjective aionios to designate a timeless realm, that which exists without any temporal duration or change at all.[Timaeus 37d] And this Platonic usage seems to have had a profound impact on the Hellenistic period, where the word aion acquired great religious significance by “becoming the name of a god of eternity”.

... But curiously, the same term is also used repeatedly in the Septuagint and occasionally in the New Testament in contexts where it could not possibly mean “eternal” or “everlasting”.

On a few occasions, as when Paul spoke of a “mystery that was kept secret for long ages (chronos aionios) but is now disclosed”, the adjective does imply a lengthy period of time...

On other occasions, its use seems roughly Platonic in this sense: whether God is eternal (that is, timeless, outside of time) in a Platonic sense or everlasting in the sense that he endures throughout all the ages, nothing other than God is eternal in the primary sense. The judgments, gifts, and actions of God are eternal in the secondary sense that their causal source lies in the eternal character and purpose of God. One common function of an adjective, after all, is to refer back to the causal source of some action or condition [footnote 22]. When Jude thus cited the fire that consumed
Sodom and Gomorrah as an example of eternal fire, he was not making a statement about temporal duration at all; in no way was he implying that the fire continues burning today, or even that it continued burning for an age. He was instead giving a theological interpretation in which the fire represented God’s judgment upon the two cities. So the fire was not eternal in the sense that it would burn forever without consuming the cities, but in the sense that, precisely because it was God’s judgment on these cities and did consume them, it expressed God’s eternal character and eternal purpose in a special way.

Now even as the adjective aionios typically referred back to God as a causal source, so it came to function as a kind of eschatological term, a handy reference to the age to come. This is because the New Testament writers identified the age to come as a time when God’s presence would be fully manifested, his purpose fully realized, and his redemptive work fully completed. [Footnote 23] So just as eternal life is a special quality of life, associated with the age to come, whose causal source lies in the eternal God, so eternal punishment is a special form of punishment, associated with the age to come, whose causal source lies in the eternal God himself. In that sense, the two are exactly parallel. But neither concept carries any implication of unending temporal duration; and even if it did carry such an implication, we would still have to clarify what it is that lasts forever. If the life associated with the age to come should be a form of life that continues forever, then any correction associated with that age would likewise have effects that literally endure forever. Indeed, even as eternal redemption is in no way a temporal process that takes forever to complete, neither would an eternal correction be a temporal process that takes forever to complete. [Footnote 24]

So it all boils down, perhaps, to how we understand divine punishment and its essential purpose. Is it an end to itself? Or could it be a means to an end, indeed a means of grace, as I believe Paul clearly taught?

[Snip]

[Above footnotes:

22. A selfish act, for example, is one that springs from, or has its casual source in, selfish motives.

23. In this way, the New Testament writers manages to combine the more literal sense of “that which pertains to an age” with the more religious and Platonic sense of “that which manifests the presence of God in a special way.”

24. Even as an adjective can refer back to the casual source of some action or event, so it can also describe the effects of some action or event. A harmful act, for example, is one whose effects are harmful to someone or another. And perhaps more to the point, an eternal transformation or an eternal change would not be an unending temporal process at all; it would instead be an event of limited duration that terminates, decisively, an irreversible condition. It would be, in other words, an event of limited duration whose effects literally endure forever. So as Christopher Marshall rightly points out: “But punishment is a process rather than a state [contrary to life, which is a state], and elsewhere when ‘eternal’ describes an act or a process, it is the consequences rather than the process that are everlasting (e.g., Heb. 6:2; Heb. 9:12, ‘eternal redemption’; Mk. 3:29, ‘eternal sin’; 2 Thess. 1:9, ‘eternal destruction’; Jude 7, ‘eternal fire’). Eternal punishment is therefore something that is ultimate in significance and everlasting in effect, not in duration” (2001, p. 186, n.123). But whereas an annihilationist believes that the relevant effect is the annihilation of a person created in God’s own image, a universalist believes that the relevant effect is annihilation of a sinful nature or that which is contrary to the image of God within us.

Lake of fire and brimstone

At this point, ED proponents may cite the “lake of fire and sulfur” in John’s Revelation (aka the Book of Revelation). However, as others have already argued, the book of Revelation itself seems to presuppose that the lake of fire has remedial functions.

The very reference to “brimstone/sulfur” suggests as much. Sulfur was well known to have medicinal abilities, particularly fumigation. This was known as far back as Homer’s Odyssey. John’s contemporary readers would have associated sulfur with medicine and healing, not torture or abandonment. Combine this with the existing tradition of using “fire” as a symbol for refinement and remedial punishment and it seems that John did indeed intend to convey a healing lake of fire.

As an example of this, consider John’s comments on “the kings of the Earth” (Gr. “basileus ge”) (KJV). He starts off repeatedly trashing these men as wicked people who end up in the lake of fire, but then goes on to suggest that the very same men enter New Jerusalem, which suggests that the lake of fire somehow cleanses these previously-unclean men.

 [Revelation 6:3-17]: And the stars of heaven fell unto the earth, even as a fig tree casteth her untimely figs, when she is shaken of a mighty wind.

 

And the heaven departed as a scroll when it is rolled together; and every mountain and island were moved out of their places.

 

And the kings of the earth, and the great men, and the rich men, and the chief captains, and the mighty men, and every bondman, and every free man, hid themselves in the dens and in the rocks of the mountains;

 

And said to the mountains and rocks, Fall on us, and hide us from the face of him that sitteth on the throne, and from the wrath of the Lamb:

 

For the great day of his wrath is come; and who shall be able to stand?

 

[16:13-14:] I saw three unclean spirits like frogs [come] out of the mouth of the dragon, and out of the mouth of the beast, and out of the mouth of the false prophet.

 

For they are the spirits of devils, working miracles, [which] go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world, to gather them to the battle of that great day of God Almighty

 

[17:2:] the kings of the earth have committed porneia, and the inhabitants of the earth have been made drunk with the wine of her fornication

 

[18:3:] For all nations have drunk of the wine of the wrath of her fornication, and the kings of the earth have committed fornication with her, and the merchants of the earth are waxed rich through the abundance of her delicacies

 

[18:9] And the kings of the earth, who have committed fornication and lived deliciously with her, shall bewail her, and lament for her, when they shall see the smoke of her burning

 

[19:19:] And I saw the beast, and the kings of the earth, and their armies, gathered together to make war against him that sat on the horse, and against his army.

 

John describes “the Kings of the Earth” as hiding from (and recipients of) God’s wrath, as “spirits of devils”, and as working with “the beast”. These are hardly descriptions of endearment. John implies the evil nature of these “kings of the earth” from chapters 6 through 19. He implies their wickedness six times, five of which are within relatively close proximity. The point here is that John’s repeated use of the phrase should be enough for us to get the picture of what these men are like. John’s usage set the precedent and placed these men in a specific category/ reference class of wicked people. Now, here is the very next occurrence of the phrase in 21:24-26 (KJV):

 

And the nations of them which are saved shall walk in the light of it: and the kings of the earth do bring their glory and honour into it.

 

And the gates of it shall not be shut at all by day: for there shall be no night there. And there shall in no wise enter into it any thing that defileth, neither [whatsoever] worketh abomination, or [maketh] a lie: but they which are written in the Lamb’s book of life.

 

John now describes these “kings of the earth” as entering New Jerusalem, after previously telling us about their fate in the “lake of fire”. How could these men go from the lake of fire to New Jerusalem? This would not make sense unless the lake of fire somehow enables these previously unclean men to enter. This is consistent with other Biblical uses of “fire” as a metaphor expressing purgatorial judgment.

 

Furthermore, New Jerusalem is said to have gates that “shall not be shut at all”. What would be the purpose of this statement? It implies that there is incoming “traffic” (incoming because nobody would want to leave the city). But where is the traffic coming from? As Talbott notes, “the only other reality left” is the “lake of fire and brimstone.” As Gregory MacDonald suggests, these passages seem to presuppose a Universalist understanding of hell fire.

 

Fiery Ruination

 

Thessalonians 1:7-9:

 

Seeing it is a righteous thing with God to recompense tribulation to them that trouble you; And to you who are troubled rest with us, when the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels, in flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ: Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power

 

Ekdikesis, which is here translated as “vengeance”, can also mean “punishment” or “justice”.[7] The standard word that lined up with our modern conception of vengeance was “timoria”, which is absent in this passage.

 

Here Paul describes God as a flaming fire and says that some people will experience destruction/ ruination apo God’s presence. The key word here is “apo”, which can be translated as either “from” or “away from”, depending on the appearance of modifying verbs. In this case, there are no modifying verbs to indicate the meaning of “away from”, so it probably means “from”. In fact, that is exactly how the word is used earlier in verse 2 of the same chapter (Thessalonians 1:2), which refers to “grace and peace apo God” (it would not make any sense to say “grace and peace away from God”). The NIV is inconsistent here. It translates verse 2 as “from God”, but then translates verse 9 as “shut out [away] from ... God”. The English Standard Version also says “away from”, but includes a footnote saying: “Or destruction that comes from” (italics in footnote). Translating apo in verse 9 as “away from” seems to reflect a presupposition about what hell is supposed to be (i.e. God’s absence), rather than consistent scholarship. Fortunately, the correct translation still appears in many other translations, including Young’s Literal Translation, the King James Version, American Standard Version, Darby Translation, and others.

 

As in other texts, hell (divine judgment via fire) is described as God’s presence. For some people God is a flaming fire and the fire causes ruination for those people. What exactly this means it not explicitly stated in the passage, but a remedial interpretation can be inferred from other evidence. As I have been showing, divine fire is elsewhere used as a metaphor for God’s purification, especially when the fire is said to be God’s presence (c.f. sons of Levi), just as it is in this particular passage. Another point I have been trying to communicate is that we should pursue an alternative to ED if such an alternative is equally plausible. We should favor such an alternative because it paints a more consistent picture of hell, but also because it does not create any tension with Jesus’ teachings discussed earlier – e.g. God loves his own enemies (recall what love entails), God is chrestos to the poneros, God does not engage in eye for an eye, etc.

 

Interestingly, the word translated as “destruction” (Greek olethros) is the very same word used for “destruction” in Corinthians 5:5, where it is used in a remedial sense (annihilation of the sinful nature, or “false self” as Talbott puts it). Thessalonians does not say what the “destruction” entails, but the passage is no harsher than the Corinthians 5 passage (which involves a horrible sin, a man being removed from his people and rebuked in the name of Jesus, and then given to Satan for the destruction of his flesh and the salvation of his spirit). So it is at least possible that, like Corinthians 5:5, the Thessalonians passage refers to remedial punishment. Universalist author Gregory Macdonald insists that the “olethros” in this passage means “ruination”. That may be a good translation. However, the same word occurs in the Septuagint to describe the “ruination” of Israel before God restores it. So either way, it is not “the end” of things.

 

It seems far more likely that the punishment Paul had in mind here is more along the lines of a purging (whose healing/corrective effects are endless in duration). Additionally, he does not specify human beings as the recipients of God’s fiery presence, and it could refer to demons/devils/dark forces.

 

 

Other Objections

 

I previously discussed several passages on the aionios fire of Gehenna (which I argue is a purifying fire), but there are several other objections that I now turn my attention to. I can share only my own take on these issues, and other CU proponents may see things differently, but I suspect that most of them would at least have similar answers.

 

 

The Necessity of Faith, and Other Requisites of Salvation

 

The New Testament repeatedly stresses the importance of faith, from the Greek “pistis”, and says it is a necessary condition for heaven. I do not know of any Christian Universalists who deny that. Instead, we argue that any requirement for salvation will (at least eventually) be met – even if it must be met in the next life.

 

ED proponents may argue that there is no explicit Biblical support for that notion. That is debatable,[8] but I accept it for the sake of argument. Assuming that there is no explicit evidence for postmortem reconciliation, one could still argue for implicit evidence. This can be formulized as follows:

 

a) There is evidence for universal reconciliation

 

b) Certain conditions must be met before receiving salvation

 

c) Some people do not meet those conditions in this life before they physically die

 

Therefore

 

d) Those people will meet those conditions in the next life

 

If premise a is true (if there really is evidence for universalism), and if some people do not meet salvation requirements in this life, then we have implied evidence that they will meet those requirements in the next life. The absence of explicit postmortem salvation in the Bible would not be evidence against the idea. This response would be a problem if we assume that people must meet the necessary conditions on Earth before they physically die, but that assumption seems very problematic as I explain later on.[9]

 

Aside from that, even if we assume that non-Christians will require Gehenna after they die for the sole reason of being non-Christians (which I reject), that still is not evidence against CU because Gehenna purifies.

 

Belief, Faith, and Knowledge

 

Several ED proponents have challenged me on the idea of people acquiring postmortem faith. They argue that people will not have “belief” in the next life, but instead will have knowledge/ certainty. And if belief is a requirement for salvation, then those who fail to believe on Earth will not and cannot be saved in the next life – according to some ED proponents. This deserves some more elaboration. Let us say that belief is on a continuum from 1-6. If 6 referred to knowledge or certainty, then I am referring to anything below 6. To illustrate, let us say that my friend buys me a nice watch from a store in the mall. I ask where she purchased it, and she tells me. I believe that she is telling the truth, but I do not know for certain (I have to take her word for “on faith”). Many Christians define faith in exactly that way. More than that, they suggest that such faith is required for anybody to obtain union with God. In the context of evangelical Christianity, it usually means something like “faith that Jesus is the messiah and rose from the dead”. If there really is an afterlife, then anybody who experiences it will not have to take anything on “faith”. At that point, the person will have knowledge and certainty (about reality and God), as opposed to belief. So if “belief” as previously defined is required for union with God, then it must be acquired in this life. Belief as previously defined cannot be obtained in the next life, because at that point people will have certainty and knowledge (and not belief) – or at least that is how many Christians view it. Following this line of reasoning, there cannot be “belief” in the afterlife because at that point people will have knowledge/ certainty, and if such “belief” is required for union with God, then anybody who fails to acquire the belief before they die will go on to experience endless misery after they die.

 

I have several objections to that.

 

First, following the philosopher and theologian Gregory Boyd, pistis can refer to loyalty or covenantal trust (the latter presupposes belief or awareness / knowledge). Pistis does not necessarily refer to “belief” as previously defined. Somebody could develop loyalty or covenantal trust in the next life.

 

Second, the gospels report that after Jesus’ resurrection, he appeared in front of many and even allowed some to touch his body for proof of his physical nature (and that he was not a ghost). If belief (as previously defined) were required, then it seems that Jesus would not have appeared in front of people the way he reportedly did.

 

Third, the very idea that aforementioned belief is required poses a moral problem. As evolutionary biologist and outspoken atheist Richard Dawkins has pointed out, specific religious beliefs are often “an accident of geography”, i.e. largely (though not entirely) influenced by environment and geographic location. People who grow up in the Middle East are more likely to have Islamic beliefs by no choice of their own; it is a matter of conditioning. They usually do not feel any pull towards Christianity, just as Christians usually do not feel any pull towards Islam. And although some Muslims convert to Christianity (and vice versa), they usually are not swayed by apologists on the other side. We do not choose what we believe, or at least most people do not. Instead, people can choose to perform an investigation, but the result of that investigation is not chosen – the mind involuntarily assents to a particular conclusion based on what strikes the investigator as most reasonable. Whether something appears more reasonable depends on several factors (including neurobiological and even para-natural). An agnostic may be “moved” into becoming a Christian, but similarly, a Christian may be reluctantly swayed by atheists. For example, Biblical scholar Bart D. Ehrman grew up Christian, but “painfully” became an agnostic during his scholarly education. He did not want to lose his Christian faith, but he had no choice. Many atheists are reluctant atheists in the sense that they truly yearn to have a belief in God, but simply cannot produce it (by no fault of their own). If beliefs are freely chosen, then I could will myself into believing that Bill Clinton is really an alien from Mars. But no matter how hard I try to force myself into believing that claim, I will never believe it apart from convincing evidence (or what I perceive to be convincing evidence).

 

If God imposes retributive punishment onto people because of their beliefs, then God punishes them for something they cannot control, which means that God would hold them responsible for something they are not actually responsible for. To drive home this point, consider the following scenario. Tim is a father to three children whom he loves dearly. The love Tim has for his children can be described as patient, unfailing, embracing, and something that compels him to do whatever he can to achieve the best interest of his children. As a demonstration of his love for his children, Tim places wonderful gifts beneath the Christmas tree. So far, there is nothing inconsistent about his behavior. However, Tim goes on to tell his children that if they do not believe that he is the person who placed the gifts beneath the tree, then the children will suffer a horrible fate: They will be separated from Tim for the rest of their lives. More than that, the children must acquire the belief by Christmas Eve (Christmas day will be too late). Tim says it will be okay if they acquire the belief by 11:59 PM on Christmas Eve, but no later. If they acquire it a minute later, then it will be “too late”, regardless of how sincere the children are.

 

Most of us would characterize Tim’s behavior as appalling. We also recognize the sharp contrast between loving and unloving behavior in this scenario.[10] There are people with such split personalities, where one aspect feels love and expresses love, while the other aspect feels rage and expresses it through violence. But surely God is not like that – not if God “is love”, has “love” for all human beings (including “enemies”), and expresses that “love” to them (see chapter 2). Love, when properly defined, is mutually exclusive with the type of behavior exhibited by hypothetical Tim. But it is also incompatible with the idea that God imposes endless misery onto people who fail to acquire certain beliefs before they physically die (see chapter 2 for a more thorough defense of this argument).

 

A few additional points should be made. It should be pointed out that disbelieving in Jesus’ divinity and resurrection is not the same as outright rejecting Jesus. Before going further, allow me to define my use of “reject”. I am using it in a social sense, e.g. “I asked a girl out to dinner, but she rejected me” (something that cannot occur if the girl does not believe in the existence of the person she is rejecting). Genuine atheists cannot reject Jesus in that sense of the word because they do not believe that Jesus exists to be rejected. People can reject something only if it exists to be rejected (or if they think that the thing exists). Likewise, Muslims do not reject Jesus (in the aforementioned sense of “reject”); they simply have a different set of beliefs about Jesus’ nature and ministry. However, if these same persons were to become convinced of Jesus’ divinity and resurrection, but turned Jesus away, then we could claim that they have rejected Jesus. One cannot knowingly reject a gift unless one believes that the gift exists in the first place. To clarify, I am not denying that some people will/do reject God, but instead I am attempting to demonstrate that Christians should not be so condemning towards those with non-Christian beliefs.

 

This is still compatible with the idea that pistis is a requirement for salvation because one could argue that atheists will have postmortem chances to acquire it. Some may argue that postmortem chances of acquiring faith render Earthly life pointless. This counterargument implies that the purpose of life is to know Jesus (or at least that is one of life’s purposes according to this counterargument). However, there are people who never get to hear of Jesus’ ministry (e.g. aborigines in remote locations), and these persons demonstrate that the purpose of earthly life is not to know Jesus. If it were, then everyone would be given an opportunity.

 

Some may still paraphrase this way of looking at things as if God were saying “you must eventually join me or suffer”, but it is not quite that simple. Theologians and mystics regard God as the source of happiness (of “supremely worthwhile happiness”, as Talbott puts it) – so that separation from God “naturally” results in misery. Heaven is special relationship/union with God (something that cannot be experienced in the same way in this life), so while it may require awareness of God, it also requires much more. Similarly, having a relationship with another human being requires awareness of that person’s existence, but it also requires much more. And in this case, the person in question (God) is willing to way until you are aware of his existence before initiating a relationship, even if it must occur in the next life. Or at least that is part of the Christian message as I see it.

 

There is nothing inconsistent with the notion that some people need to acquire pistis after they die. In fact, some people (such as those who have suffered terrible tragedies) may actually require physical death – the transition from this life to the next – before they can develop pistis. I accept that some will be unwilling or unable to develop the union even in the next life, which means that there is something within them/ something in their psyche that is emotionally separating them from God. Whatever that thing is, it will need to be burned away by the aionios fire. 

 

But aside from all of that, even if belief as previously defined (without knowledge/certainty) were required for salvation, that still would not pose a problem for postmortem salvation. A problem occurs only if we assume that God cannot set up postmortem environments in which people have opportunities for developing the necessary belief, something that would certainly be consistent with the idea that God “is chrestos to the poneros”. But as I explained earlier, I doubt that mere belief is what counts. Belief is only part of the equation, just as knowledge and awareness are only parts of the equation.

 

What about Judas?

 

People often ask about Judas because Jesus described him as “lost” in John 17:12 (ESV):

 

While I was with them, I kept them in your name, which you have given me. I have guarded them, and not one of them has been lost except the son of destruction [Judas]

 

The word translated into “lost” is “apollumi”, which is used to describe the lost coin (Luke 15:8-10),[11] the lost sheep of Israel, the lost son (prodigal son in Luke 15:24),[12] and those who Jesus “came to save” (Luke 19:10).

 

The same word occurs in the famous John 3:16 verse that “whosoever pistis will not apollumi, but will have aionios life”. Breaking that verse down, we could have something like the following: “Whoever has union with God will not experience apollumi, but will instead have life from God.” So we come to John 17:12, in which Jesus calls Judas apollumi. Judas did not have union with God at that time, and so was apollumi, but that is exactly the type of person that Jesus came to save (according to Jesus himself).

 

One could argue that Judas required or went through Gehenna based on Matthew 10:28 (which says that God can apollumi people in Gehenna), but that is compatible with universalism because Gehenna purifies (see chapter 3). And interestingly, 1 Peter 1:7 describes gold being apollumi through fire in order to remove the impurities. This fits with the discussion in chapter 3. Perhaps Judas needed to have his own impurities burned away.

 

I am not suggesting that apollumi was necessarily a remedial word, but instead I am suggesting that the word by itself does not imply irrevocable doom.

 

Summary:

 

Let us briefly sum up what we have so far:


1. God loves his enemies (in fact, we are told that if we love our enemies as ourselves then we will be like God, which suggests that God loves his enemies as himself – i.e. God loves his enemies as much as he loves himself)

 

2. God is chrestos towards those same enemies (with chrestos meaning benevolent or a healer)

 

3. (a) Love is patient, does not cause ill to its neighbor, is merciful, and creates forgiveness. (b) And since God loves his enemies, God shows those enemies patience, lack of ill will, mercy, and forgiveness.

 

4. (a) We are called to love our neighbors as ourselves. (b) If we love our neighbor as much as we ourselves, and if that neighbor is miserable, then we will also be miserable. (c) The residents of heaven/New Jerusalem will be free of mourning and sadness. (d) Those same residents of New Jerusalem will not lose their love for the unrighteous and will not forget about them. (e) Therefore, the unrighteous neighbors are not destined for endless misery, because if they were, and if we love them as ourselves (as Jesus commanded), then we would also endure endless misery. But since we will not endure endless misery, neither will any of our neighbors. (This also counters the idea of self-imposed damnation/endless misery, because the result would still be endless misery for our neighbors)

 

5. (a) Human beings cannot be more compassionate or forgiving than God. (b) Some human beings demonstrate unconditional love and forgiveness. (c) Therefore, God must also show unconditional love and forgiveness.

 

6. Ironically, some of the ED prooftexts themselves either presuppose a remedial hell or can at least be reasonably interpreted in that way. ED prooftexts have multiple possible interpretations. Which interpretation we view as correct depends on how we view the nature of divine punishment, which brings us back to the nature of God and the principles discussed above.

 

This summary will come as a shock to many Christians. Indeed, there is a bumper sticker that says: “Jesus called: He wants his religion back”. There appears to be some truth behind the humor. The portrait of Jesus given in the above summary is so contrary to western models as to be almost unrecognizable, and yet it is exactly the portrait given by the gospels and the writings of Paul. Jesus’ teachings have been widely ignored in western Christianity, which might be better termed hell-ianity. Western Christians have not only ignored Jesus’ teachings on love and forgiveness, but they have also obsessed over the fear tactics of hell.

 

As we have seen, if the above arguments are sound, then God does not (and probably cannot) damn people forever (given what Jesus taught), but instead actively reaches out to those who are lost. God loves and forgives his enemies and expects humans to follow his example. For most people, this is a process that will continue well into the next life.[13] But God’s loving attitude towards everyone is not only an ongoing process; it is an already-existing attribute of the divine nature.

 

However, with all of that being said, one could still argue that at least some people (“rebels”) will reject God forever. John’s Revelation poses a problem for that position, but it could still be argued. So indeed, the next question is whether or not all people will be reconciled to God. In the next chapter, I provide a Biblical case for universalism by analyzing standard CU prooftexts (e.g. Romans 5, Corinthians 15, etc.) and the alternative interpretations offered by ED proponents.



[1] Compare to “God is light” and to the hypothetical statement that “God is generosity”. If God is light, then there cannot be darkness in him. If God is generosity, then everything he does must be an expression of generosity. If God IS love, then everything he does must be an expression of love. What that means is discussed in chapter 2, where I show what love entails. Love does not rule out remedial punishment, but it does rule out endless vengeance. It does rule out the idea of people being condemned to Gehenna for having mistaken theology before physically dying. And so on.

 

[2] As I argue in chapter 2, the idea of people perpetually rejecting God in a truly free manner seems incoherent and it also seems undermines the blessedness of those in New Jerusalem (which would then seem to contradict John’s prediction that the blessed would be free of all sorrow and pain). It also begs the question and may be inconsistent with Paul’s beliefs about every person bowing and freely confessing Jesus’ Lordship.

 

One could argue that self-imposed annihilationism is not incoherent. Moreover, one can arguably harmonize Paul in Philippians 2:9-11 with annihilationism by suggesting that the passage is describing everyone who will exist at that time. All those who refuse to repent at that point will be wiped out of existence, and those left over will freely acknowledge Jesus. This may seem to work on the surface, but I doubt that annihilationism can be harmonized with the blessedness of the redeemed. Annihilationists may point out that we would not mourn over the misery of loved ones in hell because non-existent beings cannot suffer any more than a non-existent mind can think. However, we would still surely miss them and think about what could have been (they could have repented and joined us in bliss). Beyond that, I also argue that the Biblical descriptions of Gehenna imply that it purifies the people in it, as opposed to destroying them. See main text.

 

[3] By “separate”, I do not mean in terms of geographic distance, but instead an emotional and psychological separation.

 

[4] Inescapable Love of God

 

[5] The Evangelical Universalist, page 150

 

[6] In fairness, it could be that the persons in Gehenna are themselves the dead flesh that must be eaten away by maggots, which then results in annihilationism. However, for reasons outlined in this book, I argue that those in Gehenna have their sinful flesh eaten away by the maggots, which results in a renewed personality.  

 

[7] Vincent, Marvin. Word Studies in the New Testament, published by Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing Co in 1957, page 329. Excerpt:

 

... [In 2 Corinthians 7:11 the word conveys] meeting out of justice; doing justice to all parties. See on Luk 18:3; 21:22. The word has, however, the sense of requital ... and carries with it, etymologically, the sense of vindication, as Luk 18:7, 8.

 

[8] For example, postmortem reconciliation appears to be presupposed in John’s Revelation, in which the unclean Kings of the Earth take a dramatic turn from being unclean (and cast into the lake of fire) to being inhabitants in New Jerusalem – a city whose gates are said to never close. See earlier discussion in this chapter.

 

[9] It is also worth noting that the early church affirmed prayers for the dead, which would have been a pointless practice if one’s fate were fixed at death. See John Wesley Hanson’s expose on universalism in the early church at the Tentmaker web site: http://www.tentmaker.org/books/Prevailing.html  [Note: I do not necessarily agree with everything on the site]

 

[10] Of course, Tim could still be “just” and demonstrate justice without it violating his love. For example, if Tim’s son (Randy) were to damage his neighbor’s property, then Tim may force Randy to get a job in order to pay off the debt. This is not only just, but also educational. Tim’s love for Randy is consistent with his discipline. Perhaps Tim himself will pay off the debt, but then require Randy to some chores. Again, this is consistent with Tim’s love. But if Tim were to force Randy to do chores for eternity, then the debt will never be paid off. At that point, Tim would simply be punishing Randy for the sake of punishment, rather than for the sake of the person being punished. Moreover, Randy’s siblings (Jamie and Jessie) are fully aware of Randy’s situation and still love him; in fact, they love Randy as much as they love themselves. Not only does this disturb Jessie and Jamie, it also creates tension between them and their father.

 

[11] The parable of the lost coin describes the woman looking relentlessly until she finds it. It says she “lights a lamp and sweeps the house and seeks diligently until she finds it”. This is supposed to be comparable to Jesus, which is why he himself says he came to seek out and save those who are apollumi.

 

[12] The account says that the father embraced his son while he was “far away”. Roman Catholic theologians Dennis, Shelia, and Matthew Linn argue that the description was not meant to be geographic, but instead emotional. The son was emotionally far away, but the father was still willing to embrace him. Similarly, even when people are emotionally separated from God, he is still willing to embrace them. See the Linns’ book Good Goats: Healing Our Image of God, published by Paulist Press in 1994. Interestingly, their pro-universalism book received an Imprimi Potest, which is essentially a seal of approval and indicates that the book is within the boundaries of orthodoxy. This reflects the Catholic Church’s openness to universalism.

 

[13] Unfortunately, many Christians fall into the trap of pseudo-forgiveness characterized by repressed anger and pain. They feel guilty about any feelings of resentment towards other people, and so they burry their pain instead of allowing themselves to genuinely heal. To help counter this, I highly recommend the Linns’ “Don’t Forgive Too Soon”. Contrary to what its title might suggest, the book does not encourage grudges. Instead, it offers advice on how to achieve genuine healing and forgiveness without repressing your feelings. Those who still cannot find healing should bear in mind that our moral evolution will continue into the next life and that they should never repress what they feel (which is not to say that they should always act on those feelings).


Wednesday, January 28, 2009

[Notes: This is a theologically-oriented entry. This entry contains the rough draft for chapter 2 of my unpublished book. Click here for chapter 3, which is my discussion on hell. Again, click that link for my discussion of "hell" and "hell fire". I have not yet posted chapters 1 or 4]

As many of you know, I've done a lot of writing on controversial Christian themes and I'm also (slowly) writing a book on Christianity. The point of my book is to argue that many (though not all) Christians have misunderstood their own scriptures and tradition. I argue several things, including the idea that "hell" is not never-ending punishment (but instead is a means to universalism), which is what this entry is about.

I want feedback, so I'm going to post some parts of my work here for others to comment on. So I'm going to do a series of entries. This entry will be the rough draft for chapter 2. My next entry will be the rough draft for chapter 3.

Before posting the draft for chap 2, I want to quickly summarize Christian Universalism (CU), also known as Universal Reconciliation (UR), Christ-centered universalism, and apokatastasis (the Greek term used by some early church fathers). According to CU, every single person will eventually be reconciled to God because of Jesus (and not in spite of him, as some caricatures of CU would have you believe). CU does not deny that Jesus is "the way" to God, does not deny divine punishment, and does not deny the necessity of repentance or conscious choices; CU proponents simply allow for postmortem opportunities. There are variations of CU, but I just wanted to get the gist across.

That being said, I will now post the draft for chapter 2. Also read the footnotes to get a full picture of what I'm saying. Leave feedback!!


Chapter 2

 

Theological and Philosophical Reasons for Favoring Christian Universalism

 

“I want to believe so badly in a truth beyond our own, hidden and obscured from all but the most sensitive of eyes; in the endless procession of souls; in what cannot and will not be destroyed. I want to believe we are unaware of God’s eternal recompense and sadness; that we cannot see his truth; that that which is born still lives and cannot be buried in the cold Earth, but only waits to be born again at God’s behest - where an ancient starlight we lay, in repose.” -- David Duchovny

 

 

Throughout history Christians have quoted the Bible against each other on the same issues, and the situation continues today. Before the abolition of slavery, many Christians quoted the Bible to support slavery, and others quoted the Bible to oppose it. More recently, Christians have quoted the Bible for and against evolution, for and against equal civil rights for women, and so on. The same is true for the debate surrounding universalism vs. conventional ideas of hell, both of which found support in the early church. Some early church fathers believed in eternal conscious misery, others in annihilationism, and others in universalism. Although universalism was widely believed in the early church, and although no church fathers considered it heresy until after the third century, it became taboo and condemned by church leaders in the fifth century. It survived throughout the ages, but resurfaced with more force in the 1800s and has gained increasing traction since the 1990s.

 

The current debate over universalism clearly highlights and underlines a problem about Biblical interpretation that Christians need to be honest about. The problem is that the Bible, on the surface, seems to contain mixed (or even contradictory) messages. There are some passages that seem to clearly teach endless damnation, but there are also passages that seem to clearly teach universalism. Christians must come to grips with this reality, instead of dismissing people who disagree as heretics. To be clear, I am not claiming that the Bible actually does contradict itself on salvation or hell. Rather, I am claiming that the very nature of the Bible – written by many different authors in different cultures and eras and with different literary genres – means that there will be theological “wiggle room” on many issues. To avoid sounding cynical, let me simply say that I do indeed believe that we can form a consistent Biblical picture of hell and the extent of salvation. However, to do so requires us to explore the general nature/character of God in the Bible and philosophical reflections. We must also explore quoted prooftexts on both sides of the debate (those that appear to teach endless damnation and those that appear to teach universalism).

 

For a brief illustration of how surface readings can go either way, consider the following passages (citations taken from the English Standard Bible).

 

To defend eternal damnation (ED), one can cite verses on “aionios” punishment, which proponents of ED interpret as meaning “eternal punishment” (or “never-ending punishment”). Descriptions of “aionios” punishment can be found in Jude 7, 2 Thessalonians 1:7-9,[1] and Matthew 25:46[2] (as well as other passages). The Matthew passage places “aionios punishment” of the wicked right next to the “aionios life” given to the righteous. ED proponents argue that the parallel in verse 46 implies that both the punishment and the life are equal in duration, so if the punishment is temporary in duration and will eventually end, then the life given to the righteous will also eventually end. However, other passages imply that the life given to the righteous will never end, so therefore the punishment for the wicked will also never end – or so the argument goes.

 

For many, that settles the issue decisively. However, one could defend universalism by citing passages that talk about “all” human beings receiving salvation. These passages include Titus 2:11,[3] John 12:32,[4] Luke 3:6,[5] and Romans 5:18.[6] Some of these verses can be explained away by arguing that they refer to all groups of people (i.e. some people from every group will be saved). However, the Romans passage and the corresponding Corinthians 15 passage both seem to clearly define the reference class as every human being (as opposed to every group of people). They both seem to describe every descendent of Adam as obtaining life from (and with) Jesus.

 

Anybody who presupposes eternal damnation could reject the Universalist interpretation of these passages by arguing that “scripture elsewhere clearly affirms the never-ending nature of hell”. In contrast, those who presuppose universalism could reject the ED interpretation of ED prooftexts by arguing that “scripture elsewhere affirms that all descendants of Adam will be saved, which implies that hell must have an end.” Aside from that, there are important philosophical issues to consider. 

 

To make the waters murkier, there are Annihilationists who insist that hell (at least eventually) utterly destroys wicked people so that they no longer exist, at which point every human being in existence will be righteous. They argue that God will eventually save “all people” because a time will come when “all people” will be righteous.

 

As the reader can see, this issue is not black and white. Thomas Talbott, retired professor of Philosophy at Willamette University, argues that there is prima facie Biblical evidence for both ED and CU, and that surface readings alone are not enough to determine which view is correct.[7] He argues that we have prima facie evidence for each of the following claims (which I have paraphrased):

 

a) God wants / desires to be reconciled to all human beings (note: whether his desire will be fulfilled is a separate question)

 

b) God has the power to achieve all of his redemptive desires / the ability to achieve his plan(s) for salvation

 

c) God wants universalism but does not have the power to achieve it without interfering with free will, and so allows some people to damn themselves forever via their own free will

 

d) God does not want or desire to be reconciled to all human beings and therefore either allows ED to occur naturally or he imposes it directly

 

At least one of the above claims must be false, but each of these claims has a set of prooftexts that are typically cited in its defense, and proponents for each claim have their own way of handling objections.[8]

 

To defend claim a (the claim that God wants to be with all people), one can cite 1 Timothy 2:4, Peter 3:9, and Ezekiel 18:23 and 18:32.

 

To defend claim b (the claim that God can/ will achieve his plans for salvation), one can cite Ephesians 1:11, Job 42:2, and Isaiah 43:10-11.

 

To defend claims c and d (the idea that some are damned forever), one can cite texts that I listed earlier: Jude 7, Matthew 25:46, 2 Thessalonians 1:7-9, etc.

 

Talbott notes that if we combine claims a and b above then the logical outcome would be universalism, and so any evidence that both of those claims are true would be automatic evidence for universalism, apart from the absence or appearance of explicit CU texts in the Bible (e.g. Romans 5). He goes on to suggest that there is good evidence that both claims are true, whereas claim d rests on controversial translations and interpretations.

 

Calvinist proponents of ED reject claim a; they believe that God can save everybody but simply does not want to.

 

Arminians reject claim b; they believe that God wants to save everybody, but cannot do so without interfering with human free will. And since he respects free will and because it is irrevocable, Arminians believe that God allows some people to damn themselves.

 

Christian Universalists reject claims c and d, but accept claims a and b; they believe that God not only wants to save everybody, but also that he is capable of doing so with and without violating anyone’s free will.

 

If the above were all we had to go by, then we would have no way of confidently knowing which position is correct and does the most justice to God. This may be why the Catholic and Eastern Churches officially view CU as a possibility that we should hope and pray for, as opposed to a fact that we can be certain of.[9] ED proponents could say something like, “Universalism is not Biblical because the Bible explicitly teaches endless damnation in Thessalonians 1:7, Matthew 25:46, and other texts”. But similarly, CU proponents could say, “endless damnation is not Biblical because the Bible explicitly teaches universal reconciliation in Romans 5:12-19, Corinthians 15:24-28, and other texts.” In either case, a subset of texts will be reinterpreted in light of another subset of texts. And in either case, proponents try to explain away texts that seem to support the opposite position. In the following chapters (including this one) I argue that CU is the only way to make sense of God’s character as revealed through scriptures and that the ED prooftexts have been misinterpreted. But given the complexity of this issue, we must approach the CU conclusion step by step. For those who accept Biblical authority,[10] a careful investigation into this topic requires the following:

 

1. Linguistic and historical examination of the CU and ED prooftexts (i.e. studying the original words and historical context of the passages, which is covered in the next chapters)

 

2. Philosophical Considerations (for example, whether humans can freely reject God forever)

 

3. Extrapolating and examining passages that discuss the nature/character of God in general

 

Of course, if one does not accept Biblical authority then one can simply dismiss these varying texts as being irreconcilable and genuinely contradictory. However, given that conservative Christians make up my main (but not only) target audience, this chapter covers numbers 2 and 3 above (though mostly the latter). I discuss passages that deal with the character of God in general in order to extract some underlying principles. These principles, in turn, help us determine whether Christians who accept Biblical authority can reasonably believe in CU. Additionally, the off-handed suggestion that the passages are really irreconcilable overlooks something I demonstrate in chapter 3 – the observation that some of the ED prooftexts themselves either presuppose a remedial hell (the universalist understanding of hell) or can at least be interpreted that way without being strained. The ED prooftexts that do not presuppose a remedial hell can be interpreted either way; they can be interpreted in a way that is compatible with either CU or ED, and which interpretation we view as correct partially depends on the nature of God, which is where the aforementioned principles come into play.

 

 

Agape

 

When Universalists talk about love and its relationship to God, critics tend to think of the simple and clichéd argument that “a loving God would not send people to hell forever”. I actually do think that the argument is good, but I also believe that it needs refining and elaboration. What I have in mind is not the caricature, but a multi-layered argument. When I talk about love, I talk about the following:

 

1. Jesus’ teachings on agape (including the idea that God has agape for his enemies), who should receive it, and why (“agape” one of several Greek words for love, but it is the only one I have in mind in this chapter)

 

2. The idea that God “is agape” (leading to #3 below)

 

3. How the New Testament authors understood agape – I discuss the entailments of agape as implied or stated by those authors

 

It is my contention that a Biblically-elaborated concept of agape rules out the idea of God forcibly imposing eternal conscious misery on anybody. So my focus when talking about agape is to show that God cannot impose ECM. That by itself does not prove universalism because one could still claim that people freely choose their own damnation (by choosing endless misery or by choosing annihilation). I discuss that possibility later on.

 

With that background in mind, I now turn to Jesus’ words as recorded in the fifth, nineteenth, and twentieth chapters of Matthew’s gospel. In each case, I jump right into the more relevant parts of the chapters, which requires me omit a large portion of what was said earlier on. One may claim that I am ignoring the context, but that is not the case; quoting the entire text would be consume too much space and would bore readers, but I still encourage people to read the entire chapters of Matthew’s gospel themselves in order to judge the merits of my arguments. 

 

Beginning with chapter 5:

 

[5:38] You have heard that it was said, “An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth.” But I say to you, offer no [violent] resistance to one who is evil. When someone strikes you on (your) right cheek, turn the other one to him as well. If anyone wants to go to law with you over your tunic, hand him your cloak as well. Should anyone press you into service for one mile, go with him for two miles. Give to the one who asks of you, and do not turn your back on one who wants to borrow. You have heard that it was said, “You shall love your neighbor and hate your enemy.” But I say to you, love your enemies, and pray for those who persecute you that you may be children of your heavenly Father, for he makes his sun rise on the bad and the good, and causes rain to fall on the just and the unjust. For if you love those who love you, what recompense will you have? Do not the tax collectors do the same? And if you greet your brothers only, what is unusual about that? Do not the pagans do the same? So be perfect, just as your heavenly Father is perfect.

 

[19:16] Now someone approached him [Jesus] and said, “Teacher, what good must I do to gain eternal life?” He [Jesus] answered him, “Why do you ask me about the good? There is only one who is good. If you wish to enter into life, keep the commandments.” He asked him, “Which ones?” And Jesus replied, “‘You shall not kill; you shall not commit adultery; you shall not steal; you shall not bear false witness; honor your father and your mother’; and ‘you shall love your neighbor as yourself.’”

 

[22:34] When the Pharisees heard that he [Jesus] had silenced the Sadducees, they gathered together, and one of them tested him by asking, “Teacher, which commandment in the law is the greatest?” He said to him, “You shall love the Lord, your God, with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind. This is the greatest and the first commandment. The second is like it: You shall love your neighbor as yourself.”

 

A similar speech was recorded in the sixth chapter of Luke (starting with verse 27):

 

... to you who hear I say, love your enemies, do good to those who hate you, bless those who curse you, pray for those who mistreat you.

To the person who strikes you on one cheek, offer the other one as well, and from the person who takes your cloak, do not withhold even your tunic. Give to everyone who asks of you, and from the one who takes what is yours do not demand it back. Do to others as you would have them do to you. For if you love those who love you, what credit is that to you? Even sinners love those who love them. And if you do good to those who do good to you, what credit is that to you? Even sinners do the same.

If you lend money to those from whom you expect repayment, what credit (is) that to you? Even sinners lend to sinners, and get back the same amount. But rather, love your enemies and do good to them, and lend expecting nothing back; then your reward will be great and you will be children of the Most High, for he himself is kind to the ungrateful and the wicked. Be merciful, just as your Father is merciful.

 

Commentary:

 

I suggest five lines of commentary that should make us question the idea of God-imposed ED. Afterwards I discuss what it means to us to say that “God is love”.

 

First, Jesus’ opposition to violence and eye-for-an-eye retaliation: In contrast to the law found in the Jewish scriptures, Jesus explicitly rejected the eye-for-an-eye model, and instead insisted that we should resist evil non-violently. Jesus cites eye for an eye and says, “But I say”. He then condemns “anthistemi”, which is typically translated as “resist”, but which really implies violent resistance. According to Biblical scholar Walter Wink:

 

The term is used in the LXX primarily for armed resistance in military encounters (44 out of 71 times). Josephus uses anthistemi for violent struggle 15 out of 17 times, Philo 4 out of 10. Jesus’ answer is set against the backdrop of the burning question of forcible resistance to Rome. In that context, ‘resistance’ could have only one meaning: lethal violence.[11]

 

Jesus’ denunciation of violence may be a generality allowing for exceptions (such as self defense or defense of the innocent), but that view is not explicitly expressed; it must be inferred from other evidence. Perhaps we should conclude that the eye-for-an-eye model was necessary at one point but no longer is.[12] Either way, Jesus’ rejection of that model is too explicit to be denied. This is relevant because it sheds light on the character of God. The theme of the passage appears to be that humans should do certain things to be like God. After telling his followers to avoid eye-for-eye and to love their enemies Jesus says, “Be perfect just as your heavenly Father is perfect”. Similarly, in Luke’s gospel, Jesus tells his followers to love their enemies and then says “Be merciful just as your Father [God] is merciful”. The “just as” statement implies that God’s perfection/mercy is such that God does not engage in eye for an eye or equal retaliation (or at least not anymore).

 

This immediately raises a challenging question: If God does not engage in “eye for an eye” (or no longer does), then why should we think that God would deliver infinite punishment for finite sins (which is much more extreme than eye for an eye)? Christians often explain the idea of God-imposed endless punishment by claiming that sins have “eternal consequences”. But even if that is true, God-imposed eternal punishment would still amount to the very same “eye for an eye” model that Jesus rejected (because it would be eternal punishment for eternal sin/ eye for an eye).

 

Second, Jesus’ insistence that we love our enemies, and the implication that God loves his own enemies: Who are the recipients of agape? The accounts in Matthew and Luke both have Jesus saying that followers are to love (agapao) all of their neighbors as much as they love themselves, including their “enemies”. According to Thayer, “plesion” (the word for “neighbor”) meant “any other man [person] irrespective of nation or religion with whom we live or whom we chance to meet”. Indeed, in Luke 6:27 Jesus said that we should love (agapao) our own “enemies” because doing so will make us “children of the most high” (i.e. God). Similarly, Matthew has Jesus saying that we should love our “enemies” because doing so will make us children of the “heavenly father” (i.e. God). These accounts say that people become children of God (or show their status as children of God) by loving their enemies. This implies that God also loves his enemies. What does it mean for God to love his enemies? I explore that question in a bit.

 

Third, Jesus’ insistence that we pray for those who curse and persecute us: In Matthew’s account, Jesus instructed followers to pray for those who persecute them because doing so will make them “children of” God and “perfect” like God, which suggests that God’s perfection involves him showing compassion towards his enemies. In Luke’s account, Jesus told followers to do “good” things for those who hate them, “bless” those who curse them, and “pray for those who mistreat” them. We should do to others what we would want them to do to us. We see a similar attitude in Paul’s letter to the Romans (12:14): “Bless those persecuting you; bless, and curse not”.

 

Fourth, Jesus’ suggestion of non-partiality: Jesus described God as “making the sun rise on the bad and the good, and causing rain to fall on the just and the unjust”. This suggests that God does not show partiality.

 

 

God is chrestos to the poneros?

 

Fifth, Jesus’ note that God is “chrestos to the poneros”: Earlier I quoted Luke 6:27, in which Jesus implied that God loves his own enemies. However, there is more to the passage that leads me to my fifth line of commentary. In verse 35, Jesus said that if we love our neighbors then we “will be children of The Most High [i.e. God], because he is chrestos to the poneros”.

 

This is perhaps one of the most overlooked and/or underappreciated verses in the entire Bible. The words “chrestos” and “poneros” should be given some attention. Thayer describes the adjective “chrestos” as “opposite to harsh, hard, sharp, bitter...” and “kind [and] benevolent”. Most relevant for our discussion is the fact that first century Greeks understood the word as conveying a “healer”. This fits with the word’s usage in the New Testament. In Matthew 11:28-30, Jesus is recorded as saying:

 

Come to me, all who labor and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest. Take my yoke upon you, and learn from me, for I am gentle and lowly in heart, and you will find rest for your souls. For my yoke is chrestos, and my burden is light

 

Here Jesus implies that his “chrestos yoke” brings rest and lightens heavy burdens. In 1 Peter 1:1-3 we read:

 

put away all malice and all deceit and hypocrisy and envy and all slander. Like newborn infants, long for the pure spiritual milk, that by it you may grow up into salvation – if indeed you have tasted that the Lord is chrestos.

 

Here we see that “putting] away all malice” is synonymous with being “chrestos”. Similarly, in his letter to the Ephesians, Paul wrote (4:31-32):

 

Let all bitterness, and wrath, and anger, and clamour, and evil speaking, be put away from you, with all malice:

 

And be ye chrestos one to another, tenderhearted, forgiving one another, even as God for Christ’s sake hath forgiven you.

 

Here Paul asserts that being “chrestos” involves dropping malice. He implies that being “chrestos one to another” requires being “tenderhearted” and “forgiving one another”. He says we should be chrestos to each other because “God for Christ’s sake has forgiven you”. In his denunciation of hypocrisy among the Romans (2:4) Paul asks them if they are unaware that God’s chrestos nature “is meant to lead you to repentance”.

 

From these uses (and others that could be examined), we see what the word “chrestos” conveyed. We see that God is a healer of/ tenderhearted/ benevolent/ towards the “poneros”, which we now turn our attention to.

 

“Poneros” was (and still is) a standard Greek word for wicked people. For example, Matthew 6 records Jesus telling others about The Lord’s Prayer (v 9-13):

 

Pray then like this:

   Our Father in heaven, hallowed is your name. Your kingdom come, your will be done on earth as it is in heaven. Give us this day our daily bread and forgive us our debts as we also have forgiven our debtors. And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from ho poneros.”

 

Regarding this passage, Daniel Wallace (Ph.D. Dallas Theological Seminary) says:

 

Although the KJV renders this [as] “deliver us from evil,” the presence of the article indicates not evil in general, but the evil one himself. In the context of Matthew’s Gospel, such deliverance from the devil seems to be linked to Jesus’ temptation in 4:1-10: Because the Spirit led him into temptation by the evil one, believers now participate in his victory.[13]

 

In Matthew 5:39, quoted earlier, Jesus told people to not violently resist the “poneros”. Finally, in Matthew 7:17-18, Jesus is recorded saying:

 

Even so every good tree bringeth forth good fruit; but the corrupt [Gr. sapros] tree bringeth forth poneros fruit. A good tree cannot bring forth poneros fruit, neither can a sapros tree bring forth good fruit.

 

We can see the force behind “poneros” from these examples. It clearly refers to God’s enemies, and these are exactly the ones that God is “chrestos” towards. Hence Paul’s note to the Romans (5:6-8) that

 

while we were still weak, at the right time Christ died for the ungodly [Gr. asebes]. For one will scarcely die for a righteous person - though perhaps for a good person one would dare even to die - but God shows his love for us in that while we were still sinners, Christ died for us.

 

Jesus’ ministry and sacrifice contradict idea that God has a hateful attitude towards the “ungodly”. These are the precisely the people that Jesus died for. At the very least, this seems to rule out the idea of God vengefully punishing people for their beliefs, which are un-chosen and are culturally influenced.[14] “Poneros” typically refers to those who choose sinful behavior, while beliefs are not chosen. If God is chrestos to whose who deliberately engage in wrongful acts, then surely he is chrestos to those with un-chosen perspectives that happen to disagree with Christianity (atheists, Muslims, Hindus, etc.).

 

“God is Love”

 

Finally, our last point in our discussion of agape is the idea that God somehow is agape, as suggested in John 4:7-16 (NIV, emphases added):

 

Dear friends, let us love one another, for love comes from God. Everyone who loves has been born of God and knows God. Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. This is how God showed his love among us: He sent his one and only Son into the world that we might live through him. This is love: not that we loved God, but that he loved us and sent his Son as an atoning sacrifice for our sins. Dear friends, since God so loved us, we also ought to love one another. No one has ever seen God; but if we love one another, God lives in us and his love is made complete in us.

We know that we live in him and he in us, because he has given us of his Spirit. And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world. If anyone acknowledges that Jesus is the Son of God, God lives in him and he in God. And so we know and rely on the love God has for us. 
      God is love. Whoever lives in love lives in God, and God in him. In this way, love is made complete among us so that we will have confidence on the day of judgment, because in this world we are like him. There is no fear in love. But perfect love drives out fear, because fear has to do with punishment. The one who fears is not made perfect in love.

Towards the end of the passage the author suggests that any person who does not love will receive “punishment”, which was translated into English from the Greek word “kolasis”. I discuss “kolasis” later on, but in the meantime I simply note that the word frequently had connotations of correction, so whoever does not love must be corrected. Hence the author also says that those who do love “will have confidence on the day of judgment”. In other words, what will really count on the Day of Judgment is whether the person loved, and not whether they had accurate beliefs before dying. The author cites Jesus’ sacrifice as an example of what it means to “love”.

 

Next we move onto the idea that “God is love”, so if you experience love then you experience God in some way. There is a similar description earlier in chapter 1: “This is the message we have heard from him and declare to you: God is light; in him there is no darkness at all.” Here the author says that God “is light” in the sense that “in him there is no darkness at all”. So later on when he describes God as love, perhaps we should conclude that “in him there is absence of love at all”. Consider a similar statement that was not included: “God is generosity”. In order for God to be generosity, he could never act in a way that is not generous. So at the very least, it appears that the author is saying that God’s actions reflect agape, so that anything God does must be compatible with agape. But what exactly does that mean?

 

Aside from the author’s point that Jesus’ sacrifice was an example of agape, he also uses the same word to describe God’s love for Jesus (3:35) and Jesus’ love for Lazarus (11:5). And although they occur in other gospels, I suggest that we can extract some principles of agape from Jesus’ teachings in Luke and Matthew.

 

Love produces mercy. God is love, so God is merciful. At this point we must ask whether it is merciful for God to forcibly impose endless misery on people for any reason, including having inaccurate beliefs about God. We must ask whether it is merciful for God to impose endless punishment that has no remedial purpose. Nobody is suggesting that punishment is never necessary, but the goal of punishment should be correction and rehabilitation, otherwise the punishment is not merciful. If a criminal is capable of being rehabilitated, then rehabilitating that criminal would be the merciful thing to do. If ED prooftexts can be reasonably interpreted as remedial punishment, then that interpretation should be preferred. Indeed, later on I show that the prooftexts can be interpreted that way, and that some of them even implicitly presuppose that view.

 

Further, Paul describes some of the attributes of agape in Corinthians 13 and Romans 13:

 

If I speak in the tongues of men and of angels, but have not love, I am only a resounding gong or a clanging cymbal.

If I have the gift of prophecy and can fathom all mysteries and all knowledge, and if I have a faith that can move mountains, but have not love, I am nothing.

If I give all I possess to the poor and surrender my body to the flames, but have not love, I gain nothing.

Love is patient, love is kind. It does not envy, it does not boast, it is not proud.

It is not rude, it is not self-seeking, it is not easily angered, it keeps no record of wrongs.


Love does not delight in evil but rejoices with the truth.

It always protects, always trusts, always hopes, always perseveres.

Love never fails.
But where there are prophecies, they will cease; where there are tongues, they will be stilled; where there is knowledge, it will pass away.

For we know in part and we prophesy in part,

but when perfection comes, the imperfect disappears.

When I was a child, I talked like a child, I thought like a child, I reasoned like a child. When I became a man, I put childish ways behind me.

Now we see but a poor reflection as in a mirror; then we shall see face to face. Now I know in part; then I shall know fully, even as I am fully known.

And now these three remain: faith, hope and love. But the greatest of these is love.

 

[Romans 13:8]  Let no debt remain outstanding, except the continuing debt to love one another, for he who loves his fellow-man has fulfilled the law.

 

The commandments, “Do not commit adultery, Do not murder, Do not steal, Do not covet”, and whatever other commandment there may be, are summed up in this one rule: Love your neighbor as yourself.

 

Love does no harm to its neighbor. Therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.

 

It is worth noting what Paul has to say about agape. He says that it is kind, patient, unfailing, keeps no record of wrongs, and does no harm to its neighbor. Particularly noteworthy is the idea that “love does no harm/ill to its neighbor” in Romans 13:10. The word translated as “harm” is “kakos”, which is also used in Jesus’ parable to describe the rich man’s treatment of Lazarus (Luke 16:25). If God loves everybody (including his enemies as Jesus suggested), and if love excludes kakos, then God will not demonstrate kakos towards any person. In other words, God will not treat anybody (not even his enemies) the way that the rich man treated Lazarus. This is significant because the rich man refused to help Lazarus, even when Lazarus was begging. The rich man turned his back on those needing healing, but God never will.

 

Given what we have learned above, we must ask whether God can love people while simultaneously imposing endless misery on those same people. I submit that the answer is a resounding “no”. ED proponents may have another point to make. They point out that while God is love, he is also just and must execute justice. However, that objection is very problematic because it presupposes a particular definition of “justice” without explaining why we should accept that definition. Why should we think that endless misery is more just than a remedial punishment that rehabilitates people? Rehabilitation is more merciful than endless misery and should be the preferred option.[15] As Talbott argues, justice and love are two sides of the same coin, and not mutually exclusive concepts that God must choose between when dealing with unrepentant sinners.

 

If all of that is true, then what should we think of God’s “hate” for Esau? It is important to bear in mind that sometimes “hate” is used hyperbolically. For example, Jesus said that we need to “hate” our own parents and siblings in order to follow him (Luke 14:26), an idea that would explicitly contradict his other teachings if we take it literally. Given the above evidence that God loves everybody, we have no reason to think that God ever fails to love anybody (including Esau). If God loves even his enemies, as Jesus suggested, and if Esau was/is an enemy, then God loves Esau. Also, the word translated as “hate” can just as easily refer to “quarantine” or “set apart from” or “left aside”. It does not always convey a hateful attitude (in our modern sense) towards the recipient. This makes sense when we remember that in the context Esau represented a nation, not an individual. The nation was left aside, but not necessarily outside the range of agape.  

 

 

Insights from the Parables

 

[Not added yet]

 

 

The Blessedness of the Redeemed

 

Christians have always worried about the fate of their loved ones. They wonder whether anybody they love will go to hell forever. Ironically, that may itself an argument against ED.

 

In Revelation, the disciple John describes the earth being transofmred into New Jerusalem. Of relevance here is John’s description in chapter 21 of the emotional health of the residents about (v 1-4):

 

Then I saw a new heaven and a new earth, for the first heaven and the first earth had passed away, and there was no longer any sea.

I saw the Holy City, the new Jerusalem, coming down out of heaven from God, prepared as a bride beautifully dressed for her husband.

And I heard a loud voice from the throne saying, Now the dwelling of God is with men, and he will live with them. They will be his people, and God himself will be with them and be their God.

He will wipe every tear from their eyes. There will be no more death or mourning or crying or pain, for the old order of things has passed away.

 

Here John says that after Earth has been transformed, there will be “no more... mourning or crying or pain”. People will be in bliss/ peace. This is an important point when considering the nature of God. Christian philosophers Thomas Talbott and Eric Reitan have argued that the blessed in heaven could never be happy or at peace with knowledge of the damned, and therefore nobody is ever really damned forever.[16]

 

If Christians really believe that John’s Revelation is true, then they must ask themselves some tough questions. I ask the reader to recall that Jesus requres people to love their neighbors (including their enemies) as much as they love themselves (because doing so will make them like the Father, who is “chrestos to the poneros”). Now consider the conventional idea of hell: that of endless/ceaceless misery for its recipients. Now recall that everyone is our neighbor, including our enemies. So then what should we do and how should we feel if one of our neighbors experiences ceaseless misery?

 

Being happy in misery is an oxymoron. If I am happy, then I am not miserable. And if I am miserable, then I am not happy. The two states/conditions are mutually exclusive. If I am in heaven, then I am not in hell. And if I am in hell, then I am not in heaven. The two states/conditions are mutually exclusive. Therefore, if I love my neighbor as myself, and if my neighbor is miserable (in hell), then I am also miserable (in hell). If my neighbor is miserable but I am not, then I do not truly love my neighbor as myself, something that Jesus requires. If I love my neighbor as much as I love myself, then I could not be any more happy with my neighbor in misery than I would be with myself in misery. I would not be happy with myself in misery, and likewise, if I love my neighbor as much as I love myself, then I would not be happy with my neighbor in misery either. This is a bit like quantum entanglement on a spiritual level. Misery in one causes misery in the other, regardless of the distance between them.

 

But then, if our neighbors really experience hell (endless misery), how can we ever be free from sorrow as John’s revelation predicts?

 

There have been a few attempts to answer this question from the perspective of ED. For example, some authors have suggested what Talbott calls the “labotomy” option: Either God will erase our love for the damned, or he erase our awareness/memories of them altogether. Both of proposals have major difficulties. The idea that God will erase our love for the damned contradicts Jesus’ explicit teachings on love: That we should love our own enemies as much as we love ourselves (with no qualification), that God loves his own enemies as much as he loves himself, and that God is a healer of the lost. Talbott offers two objections to the view that God will erase our memories.[17] First, it would mean that God’s “victory” over sin and evil is really just a hoax. And second, memories of our loved ones stretch far back and play a role in our personality. For example, memories of our Earthly parents. If my parents were damned, and if I were to forget about my parents altogether, then I would lose decades worth of memories about specific events. The record in my brain would not be a coherent whole because large pieces would be missing. The missing pieces could be replaced by false memories, but that would then make God a liar.

 

But perhaps there are other explanations. John Sanders, professor of Philosophy and Religion at Huntington College in Indiana, suggests that God can transform us without erasing our memories of the damned or our love for them.[18] He acknowledges the role of relationshipos in shaping who we are; specifically, he talks about his beloved wife. He tells us that he has trouble with the notion that there will be no marriage in New Jerusalem (something that Jesus seems to say in all three synoptic gospels). Sanders wonders how he will be happy while possessing knowledge that he is no longer husband to his wife, something that would presently cause great misery. He concludes that although God will not erase his memories, God will nonetheless “bring about a change in my identity such that I would not be unhappy in no longer being husband to my wife.” He goes on to ask, “if God can accomplish this for me regarding my marriage then why could God not accomplish it in the case of a loved one who permanently turned away from God’s love?” Moreover, Sanders suggests that our misery is often self-centered. He says, “The grief I would experience over the death of a loved one is pretty much for what I would miss” (his emphasis).

 

It seems to me that Sanders has failed to offer a compelling critique. Now in one sense the grief of the redeemed may be self-centered because we must love each person as much as ourselves. However, this actually counts against Sanders’ argument. Logically, he could not be happy and miserable at the same time, so if he were damned to experience hell (endless misery) himself, then he would not be happy about it. But likewise, if he loves his wife as much as he loves himself, then he would not (and could not) be happy if he had knowlegde of her enduring endless misery. This is what Talbott means when he says that love ties peoples’ interests together in a special way, and this is the type of love that Jesus demands from us (something we acquire as we spiritually mature). Moreover, in purely self-centered grief, the person is concerend only about his own needs. But in this case, the person is concerned with the needs and wellbeing of the damned.

 

What about his misery over no longer being husband to his wife? That is an understandable and human response that I sympathize with, but it is not an argument against Talbott’s proposal. God could change our mental wiring so that we no longer desire romance/eroticism, which would then amount to a change in the kind of love we experience (i.e. romantic love), but that does not entail a reduction in non-romantic love. We will still have non-romantic (platonic) love for our neighbors, and we will love those neighbors as much as we love ourselves – which brings us back to the question of how we could simultaneously love our neighbors as ourselves and posssess knowledge of their eternal misery. Sanders has not answered that question at all, and the problem remains just as strong.

 

Perhaps there is another option. A reviewer for an early draft of this chapter wrote to me and said:

 

Curiously, I’ve experienced an emotion which I called “joyful sorrow”, the emotions that the prodigal son experienced when he returned to his father and was accepted. They may not be mutually exclusive – at least in the short term.

 

However, notice John’s actual wording. He says that there will be “no more” sorrow, “no more” pain, and “no more” tears. He says that God will “wipe every tear”. These descriptions imply the total absence of sorrow and the presence of total peace. The Principle of Blessedness says that the truth of ECM would mean that the blessed in heaven have, at the least, a mix of happiness and sorrow (sorrow over the damned in hell), but this would surely contradict John’s wording.

 

If we view the nature of God as Jesus portrayed him (searching relentlessly for the lost coin, embracing the emotionally distant, etc), then we should conclude that God is always willing to embrace people. As I argue later, divine “punishment” is really the means by which people are healed/cleansed/purified/rehabilitated. If that is true, then we have good reason for believing that everything will eventually be wonderful – to the point that there will be no mourning, no sorrow, no pain, and no tears. 

 

Limits of Divine Compassion

 

This next argument is brief and aimed at the idea that God himself imposes the endless misery on those in hell. Recall again that, according to Jesus’ implications, God loves his own enemies. And Paul describes what real love entails (love is kind, patient, does no harm to its neighbor, never fails, and is “greater” than faith). When those things are put together (and when the details are fleshed out, as they partially were earlier), then problems arise for the view that God would force endless misery on someone.

 

But this problem gets deeper. If we view God as greater than humans in all categories that matter, then we would have to include compassion and forgiveness (which are products of love): God is more forgiving and more compassionate than any human being. And yet there are people in this world with undying compassion for others – people that would never give up on anyone no matter how far they have fallen. Is God less loving and less compassionate than those people?

 

The Roman Catholic theologians Dennis, Sheila, and Matthew Linn argue that we become like the God we adore. If we adore an unforgiving and cold God, then we are more likely to become unforgiving and cold ourselves. If we adore a God who refuses to embrace people that have sincerely changed, then we are more likely to become just as cruel. On the other hand, if we adore a God who embraces all people, no matter how far they fallen, then we are more likely to accept people. If we a adore a God who will do whatever it takes to heal and transform the hearts of the wicked, then we are more likely to emulate such compassion and patience.

 

Of course, compassion and patience do not entail the acceptance of destructive behavior (e.g. murder and rape). Instead, compassion compels us to do whatever we can for the perpetrator’s best interest while doing whatever we can to protect others from harm. If rehabilitation for a serial killer is possible, then we should rehabilitate him. We are limited in what we can do, but God can work with any tainted or broken psyche. If God can, then God will. I join the Linns in suggesting that “God loves us at least as much as the person who loves us the most”, and the person who loves us the most could never reject us forever.

 

 

Problems with the notion of self-damnation

 

Given what we saw above, it seems highly unlikely that God would impose endless misery on any persons. At this point, some may appeal to free will and argue that endless damnation is self-imposed by stubborn humans. They suggest that some people can never be happy in God’s presence and would be miserable no matter what. That is a good approach when attempting to reconcile God’s character (revealed through Jesus) with the perceived reality that some will endure endless misery. However, this approach has several problems.

 

First, the free will defense still results in the conclusion that some of our neighbors will endure endless misery. This brings us back to John’s revelations about a new world where God’s people have no sorrow and no pain – not simply a mix of sorrow and joy.  The free will defense of ED does not address the question of how Christians can be content with the damnation of their neighbors while simultaneously loving those neighbors as themselves. Unless and until that question is answered, the free will defense of hell will continue to fail.

 

Second, the free will defense of ED simply assumes ED to be true and attempts to explain how it could be true. Aside from the fact that many of the ED prooftexts themselves presuppose a Universalist understanding of hell (see chapter 3), there appears to be a number of passages that explicitly teach universalism. So appealing to free will really seems to be begging the question, rather than an actual argument. It assumes that some people really will damn themselves forever. But why should we think that?

 

Third, the very idea of freely chosen endless misery seems incoherent, as Eric Reitan and Tom Talbott have extensively argued. Here is a very short summary of their arguments: In order to be a free moral agent, a person requires a certain degree of rationality, which in turn produces self-preservation. If the Christian view of God is correct, then God is the source of ultimate happiness, so that rejecting the full revelation of God (as opposed to rejecting a particular portrait of God) “naturally” results in misery. But nobody with sufficient self-preservation would deliberately and perpetually choose misery over their own happiness (especially if that happiness is unsurpassable). Such a “choice” would reflect a lack of rationality, which in turn means that the person is not truly free. God would have to restore their freedom, at which point they would (eventually) choose to embrace him.

 

With that being said, let us assume for the sake of argument that people can freely reject God forever. We still face an obstacle in assuming that God would even allow such irreparable harm in the first place. But why should we assume that? ED proponents may point out that God allows people to harm themselves during their earthly lives, so why not allow it to continue into the next life? That argument has two problems. First, the suffering that occurs on Earth is not irreparable because earthly life is not all we have, which means that there is always a chance for restoration in the next life. And second, suffering on earthly life is rarely self imposed in a totally free manner. Even in the cases when it is freely self imposed, it is only temporary and not consistent. If people were to consistently and chronically harm themselves then it would be a reflection of underlying mental illness. ED proponents may argue that eternal damnation is both self-imposed and a reflection of mental illness. But if that is the case, then it is not the type of freedom that should render the persons as morally responsible. They would need healing and restoration, which God can offer. ED proponents may suggest that the mentally-ill damned will reject God’s medicine, but why should we think that God would honor their “choice” to remain in their state? It is akin to an un-medicated paranoid schizophrenic who mutilates himself. If such a person rejected the offer of medicine, we would be justified in forcing the medication on him.

 

Fourth, a somewhat speculative Biblical case can be made that a time will come when all personal agents freely bow to Jesus. In Philippines 2:9-11 Paul seems to predict a time when every person will freely bow to Jesus and confess his lordship:

 

 God has highly exalted [Jesus] and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

 

Several things should be said about this passage:

 

a) The word translated as “confess” is used to convey a voluntary action in every other usage, and it most commonly refers to giving praise in the New Testament and in the Septuagint. Paul says that the confession will be “to the glory of the Father”. But could the Father really be glorified by a fake or forcibly imposed acknowledgment?

 

b) Paul says that nobody can confess Jesus’ lordship without the Holy Spirit (Corinthians 12:3), which suggests that these persons also have the inner workings of the Holy Spirit.

 

c) Perhaps most interestingly, the passage specifies that the personal agents include those that are “in heaven, on earth, and under the earth”. Who are these personal agents that are “under the earth”? The wording appears to suggest that the agents are angels, humans, and angels that are presently fallen. 

 

However, there is a potential problem with using Philippians 2:9-11. The passage uses the aorist subjunctive, which usually implies possibility and not certainty. One could argue that the personal agents may or may not bow to Jesus and confess his lordship.

 

If God will not forcibly impose endless hell on anyone (because it is contrary to his nature and character), and if humans cannot choose endless hell in a truly free manner (because the concept is incoherent and because it contradicts John’s revelations), then why should we think that anyone will endure endless hell? And yet, there are passages that appear to teach ED, which I discuss next.



[1] “... the Lord Jesus is revealed from with his mighty angels in flaming fire, inflicting vengeance on those who do not know God and on those who do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus. They will suffer the punishment of eternal destruction, away from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of his might.”

 

[2] “And these will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.”

 

[3] “For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation for all people”

 

[4] “And I [Jesus], when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw [lit. “drag”] all people to myself.”

 

[5] “all flesh shall see the salvation of God”

 

[6] “... as one trespass [Adam’s sin] led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness [Jesus’ sacrifice] leads to justification and life for all men.”

 

[7] Pages 6-13 of Universal Salvation? The Current Debate, edited by Christopher Partridge and Robin Parry and published by Paternoster Press in 2003 (and then again in 2004 in the U.S. by Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing Company)

 

[8] Universal Salvation? Also see Talbott’s Inescapable Love of God, published by Universal Publishers in 1999. Also see an online article by Talbott at http://www.willamette.edu/~ttalbott/prolegomenon.shtml

 

[9]

 

[10] I deliberately chose the phrase “Biblical authority” over “Biblical inerrancy” because the latter expression can be divisive among Christians. The term is not always clearly defined and the expression “Biblical authority” is acceptable to Christians who reject “Biblical inerrancy”.  In my experience, “inerrancy” refers to the idea that the Biblical texts are totally without error in all areas, including every claim about history. In contrast, the position of “Biblical authority” (often called “Biblical infallibility”) simply states that the Bible is correct on matters of theology and morality, but not necessarily history and science – which is not meant to suggest that the Bible contains scientific errors. That is a separate question that involves (but is not limited to) studying which texts were intended as allegory or poetry and which were intended to be literal. It is a question that I do not explore here. There is also the view that scripture is about ontology, in which case it may occasionally be mistaken on morality and theology. In this book I am assuming that scripture is correct on theology and morality.

 

[11] For an online article by Wink, go to http://www.cres.org/star/_wink.htm. Also see Linn, Matthew; Linn, Sheila; Linn, Dennis. Don’t Forgive Too Soon: Extending the Two Hands That Heal, published by Paulist Press in 1997.

 

[12] Some may cite examples of OT violence here. See appendix A.  

 

[13] See page 233 of Greek Grammar: Beyond the Basics, published by Zondervan in 1997. Also see Richard Trench’s “Synonyms of the New Testament”, republished by Cosimo Classics in 2007. Excerpt:

 

 the PONHROS [poneros] is ... the active worker out of evil... In PONHROS the positive activity of evil comes far more decidedly than in KAKOS, the word therefore being constantly opposed to CRHSTOS, or the good contemplated as the useful... The KAKOS may be content to perish in his own corruption, but the PONHROS is not content unless he is corrupting others as well... Satan is emphatically hO PONHROS as the first author of all the mischief in the world. [Emphasis added]

 

[14] See my more detailed discussion on belief in chapter 3.

 

[15] ED proponents suggest that, although we cannot necessarily make sense of ED, it is nevertheless a clear teaching in texts like Matthew 25:46, Thessalonians 1:7-9, etc. And so Christians must accept ED even if they cannot make sense out of it. I discuss this in chapter 3, where I show that the hell prooftexts either presuppose remedial punishment or are open to that interpretation without being strained.

 

[16] See their work in Universal Salvation? The Current Debate (2003), cited earlier.

 

[17] Ibid, pages 15-18. 


[18] Ibid, pages 171-172.


Thursday, December 25, 2008

Same Sex Relationships: Revisiting the Creation Narrative

I now want to revisit the creation narrative in Genesis 2:1-25, which many Christians claim shows God's true intention for romantic relationships. I am not discussing other texts cited against SS relationships. Whether or not the Bible condemns SS relationships per se in other passages is not the topic of this entry, so please don't leave comments to the effect of: "yes, but the Bible forbids homosexual acts in many passages". I am simply suggesting that the creation narrative should not be used against SS relationships.

 

There are two arguments from silence that are often made against SS relationships, one of which is broad and the other is more specific.

 

The broad argument is "if SS relationships are acceptable, then why aren't they ever affirmed in the Bible?"

 

The more specific argument is "God made Adam and Eve, not Adam and Steve" – i.e. the creation narrative lists the first couple, and they are opposite sexed, which therefore indicates that OS relationships are what God intended. It won't do any good to argue that the account is myth because non-literalist Christians can still argue something like the following: "The beautiful and divinely inspired myth contains an archetype of what romantic relationships are supposed to be like: one man and one woman."

 

I will discuss both arguments from silence below

 

The first argument from silence

 

In the case of same-sex relationships per se from a scriptural point of view, does the absence of (explicit) affirmation equal the presence of condemnation?

 

Let's apply the same question to other activities that are never affirmed. The Bible never affirms or explicitly condones ingesting caffeine or junk food, yoga, full contact sports, or masturbation. Are these activities also immoral on the basis of scripture never mentioning them? In these latter cases, does the absence of affirmation equal the presence of condemnation? If not, then why not?

 

If anything, there is a much stronger case against full-contact sports and "fake" pro-wrestling (whose "competition" is fake but whose violence is real in varying degrees) than against same-sex relationships. Full contact sports (such as boxing or hockey) and pro-wrestling are very violent and always require damaging the human body, which is supposed to be a temple for the Lord.

 

And what about eating junk food and ingesting caffeine? "Junk food" is given that label because it provides little to no sustenance/nutritional support. It wastes the function of the intestines, which is to obtain nutrients from foods and deliver them to the bloodstream. Caffeine actually removes water from the body because it is a diuretic. Aside from that, it also interferes with sleep and is a highly addictive substance that leads to severe withdrawal symptoms. The more you drink the more you need, and the more you need the more severe the withdrawal. In other words, instead of consumers mastering caffeine, caffeine becomes the master and takes control. As with all addictions, the addict cannot function normally (in this case for up to a week) without another "hit". Why then is caffeine consumption morally acceptable, and yet same-sex relationships are not?

 

Again, I'm here dealing with the argument from silence. It is usually claimed that the Bible does indeed explicitly and repeatedly condemn all SS relationships for all time. But right now I am dealing with the argument from silence ("the Bible never approves of SS relationships"). My contention is that the argument is very weak because the Bible never approves of many things that we take for granted.

 

 

The Second Argument from Silence – "Adam and Eve, Not Adam and Steve" 

 

Conventional authors on this subject argue that if God affirms SS relationships, then he would have included a SS couple in the creation story. As the first argument from silence, I think this one is weak. Actually, I think that it is even weaker and also bizarre.

 

For starters, the creation narrative is silent on a lot of things that we would never condemn, such as celibacy, meat eating, platonic friendships, and so on. I want to briefly discuss each of those below.

 

Celibacy – Robert Gagnon argues that the affirmation of SS relationships would require an entirely different creation story, but he fails to note that the claim could be said of celibacy. In fact, the story commands the opposite ("be fruitful and multiply" and "for this reason a man will dabaq to woman"). The creation narrative simply does not mention or affirm either celibacy or singleness, but we would never condemn those... right?

 

Meat eating – the only diet mentioned is vegetarianism, and meat eating is not mentioned until much later in Genesis.

 

Platonic friendships – These are simply not mentioned; the only human relationship mentioned is an erotic/romantic relationship, and there is no hint in the story that humans were meant to have platonic friendships with each other. Conventional authors could counter by saying that "the story also never condemns such friendships", but that is precisely my point. The story never condemns SS relationships, but instead simply fails to mention them, which is not the same as indicating that OS relationships are somehow "ideal" or superior to SS relationships. Concluding otherwise would be hasty and inconsistent. Why not also conclude that "erotic relationships are ideal and superior to platonic relationships". And even if we do conclude that erotic relationships are better than platonic relationships, we would still not condemn platonic relationships... right?

 

Secondly, the model of one woman and one man is challenged by the Bible itself, indeed by Genesis itself. Genesis itself goes on to show the affirmation for polygamy (1 man with multiple women). Genesis also affirms concubines. And the vegetarian diet in the creation narrative is replaced with meat eating after Noah's flood. All of these are not only absent in the creation story, but they also go against the model in the creation story.

 

Third, prior to the creation of Eve, the creation story explicitly says that the animals were not suitable as a mate for Adam. But if SS relationships are wrong, then why didn't the story also explicitly say that Steve is not a suitable mate for Adam?? I first heard this particular argument from a biological anthropologist named Patrick Chapman, who just published a book called "Thou Shalt not Love", which I highly recommend.

 

Aside from that, I think a lot of people will be interested in Brian Rainey's essay on the creation story (which I posted in my xanga, with all credit given to him, here)

 

So what am I saying? Again, I am simply saying that the argument from silence is very weak, regardless of whether it takes place in the form of Adam and Eve or more broadly. But somebody could still argue that the Bible explicitly condemns SS relationships elsewhere. That isn't my present concern and is not the topic of this entry. One issue at a time.

 


Monday, December 22, 2008

I want to re-visit two Biblical passages that are typically cited against same-sex relationships: Romans 1:18-32 and the creation narrative in Genesis.

 

I was reading comments somebody left me back in the summer, and I came across this:

 

I will concede that it is possible that he [Paul] is listing various religious practices in chapter 1 of Romans, but I don't feel it is definitely so. The reason being, Paul is not that kind of writer.  His letters often have convoluted clauses and subclauses, even subtopics in the middle of sentences, making it nearly impossible to discern whether two consecutive statements are directly related, or if they will both be tied in 4 paragraphs in the future.

 

This person was suggesting that Paul's writing style tended to be so all over the place - so random - that we cannot definitively know whether Paul's reference to same-sex activity was limited to a cultic sex. I disagree strongly. I think that it is obvious that Paul directly linked the same-sex activity to idolatry. I invite people to carefully look at the passage for themselves here.

 

In verse 21, Paul refers to

 

they [who] knew God, [but] glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened  

 

Paul continues describing the aforementioned "they" in verse 22:

 

 professing themselves to be wise, they became fools.

 

Wait, who is "they"? The reference to "they" refers the same people spoken of in verse 21. He hasn't changed the subject yet.

 

Verse 23 continues describing the people in verse 22. Here are verses 22 and 23 next to each other:

 

[v. 22] Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,  [v. 23] And changed the glory of the incorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and four-footed beasts, and creeping things.

 

So verses 22 and 23 are both refer to the same people spoken of in verse 21. Paul hasn't changed the subject yet.  

 

Now we come to verse 24:

 

[v 24] Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonor their own bodies between themselves.

 

Who is the unqualified "them" in verse 24? The word "them" here refers to the very same people in verse 23, who are the same people in verses 21 and 22. Paul hasn't changed the subject yet.  

 

Now we come to verse 25:

 

Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen

 

What does Paul mean by the word "who" in the beginning of this verse? Paul is continuing his description of the people in verse 24, and verse 24 refers to the same people in verses 21-23.  

 

Some people might think that Paul's use of "amen" implies a change in topic. However, the wording in the very next verse (v 26) shows that he hasn't changed the subject yet. Here is verse 26:

 

 For THIS CAUSE God gave THEM up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature.

 

Again, who is "them" that Paul is referring to? It must be the same people spoken of in verses 21-25. That explains why Paul says "for this cause". What cause? The "cause" he mentions here is the idolatry in verses 23-25.  

 

So Paul does not change the subject between verse 21 and verse 27. He is talking about the same people. The passage describes these particular people as engaging in specific forms of idolatry and engaging in certain sexual activities that were "para phusis", which is often (badly) translated as "unnatural".

 

"Para" meant "beyond" and "phusis" had cultural connotations. For example, Paul also said that "phusis" teaches us that men should not have long hair. If phusis means "natural" then it would be unnatural for men to have long hair. Paul also described God as going against phusis for including the gentiles.

 

Phusis could mean customary for a culture. In Jewish culture at that time, it was uncustomary to "waste" semen by having non-reproductive sex.

 

It's possible (though I'm not certain) that phusis could also refer to a personal inclination, like somebody who hates dogs adopting a dog. From this perspective, it would be against phusis for a heterosexual man to have sex with another man.

 

This background ties into the context of idolatry. It just so happens that in Paul's era, there were priests called galli, and these galli had sex with male worshippers in the temples. There were also female galli who used artificial penises to penetrate men, which definitely would have been beyond phusis. Townsley has a lengthy article here. Townsley also argues that the structure of Paul's letter uses parallelism. Specifically, Townsley argues that verses 26-27 (the sexual verses) were meant to parallel verses 23-25 (the idolatry verses).

 

Verse 26 is usually thought to condemn lesbian sex, but it is not explicitly stated. The parallel between verses 26 and 27 is that both sex acts are "para phusis". Verse 26 refers to some kind of sexual activity that is para phusis, and 27 refers to men who engaged in activity that was "likewise" para phusis by having sex with each other. But this doesn't mean that verse 26 refers to lesbianism, and indeed the lesbian interpretation was not explicitly accepted by the church fathers until the 4th century (and was explicitly rejected by church fathers beforehand).

 

Interestingly, the galli were sometimes called "malakoi", which Paul condemned in Corinthians 6:9 (along with the "arsenokoitai", which I won't discuss right now)

 

As I said earlier, I think it is obvious that Paul was not condemning male-male sex per se.

 

In my next post I will re-visit the creation narrative

 



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"I want to believe so badly in a truth beyond our own, hidden and obscured from all but the most sensitive of eyes; in the endless procession of souls; in what cannot and will not be destroyed. I want to believe we are unaware of God's eternal recompense and sadness; that we cannot see his truth; that that which is born still lives and cannot be buried in the cold Earth, but only waits to be born again at God's behest - where an ancient starlight we lay, in repose." -- David Duchovny

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